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1)

(a) The Shiur of most Isurim to do with food is a k'Zayis.
What is the Shiur of Tum'as Ochlin, and why is it different?

(b) How does Rebbi Elazar initially interpret this? What prompts him to make such a Derashah?

(c) Why do we need the precedent of Yom Kipur for that? Why can we not learn it from the change of wording by Tum'as Ochlin itself?

(a) How do we know that the Shiur of Tum'as Ochlin is not ...

1. ... a kid-goat (which is also food that comes from food)?
2. ... a Ben Peku'ah? What is a Ben Peku'ah?
3. ... The egg of a *large* bird called a Bar Yochni?

(b) Then what causes us to retract from Rebbi Elazar's original explanation?

(c) How does Rebbi Avahu himself finally learn the Shiur of a k'Beitzah by Tum'as Ochlin from the same Pasuk as Rebbi Elazar?

(a) Rebbi Elazar obligates someone who eats Cheilev nowadays to record how much he ate, because Beis-Din might add to the Shiurim.
Why can this not mean that if he ate less than a k'Zayis, he should record it, in case Beis- Din reduce the Shiur of a k'Zayis, for which he is now *obligated* to bring a Korban (even though, according to the original interpretation of the Shiur - at the time when he ate the Cheilev, he was *not*).

(b) Had we understood Rebbi Elazar like that, how would we have explained his words 'Shema ... Yarbeh be'Shiurin'? Surely 'Yaktin be'Shiurim' would have been more appropriate?

(c) Then what *did* Rebbi Elazar really mean?

(a) Rebbi Yochanan said 'Shiurin ve'Onshin Halachah le'Moshe mi'Sinai'.
What is wrong with this statement the way it stands?

(b) Then what *did* Rebbi Yochanan mean?

(c) According to Acheirim in a Beraisa, it was Ya'avetz who taught us the Shiurin.
Who was Ya'avetz, and how could he introduce new concepts, considering that the Torah writes in Bechukosai "Eileh ha'Mitzvos ... ", from which we learn that (other than through Torah she'be'Al Peh), nobody is permitted to add anything to the Torah?

(a) Our Mishnah gives the Shiur for drinking on Yom Kipur as 'Me'lo Lugmav' (two cheeks-full).
Is this to be taken literally?

(b) Then why does the Tana write 'Me'lo Lugmav'?

(c) In a Beraisa, Beis Shamai gives the Shiur as a Revi'is, Beis Hillel as a Me'lo Lugmav and Rebbi Yehudah quoting Rebbi Eliezer, as ki'Me'lo Lugmav. If Beis Hillel means ki'Me'lo Lugmav, what is the difference between the latter opinion and Beis Hillel?

(d) Rebbi Yehudah ben Beseirah has a fourth opinion.
What is it?

(a) What is the problem with saying that (with regard to the Shiur of eating on Yom Kipur) Beis Shamai gives the Shiur of a Revi'is and Beis Hillel as a ki'Me'lo Lugmav?

(b) How do we resolve the problem?

7)

(a) Why is it that, on Yom Kipur, the Shiur for food is standard (a Koseves ha'Gasah), whereas the Shiur for drink (a Me'lo Lugmav) differs from person to person?

(b) Can it be that a Koseves ha'Gasah is sufficient to still the hunger of Og Melech ha'Bashan, just as it does for a small person?

(c) And can it be that the Shiur of a Koseves ha'Gasah of edible vine- sprouts stills someone's hunger in the same way as the same Shiur as a juicy steak?

(a) What is the time-limit within which one must eat ...

1. ... a k'Zayis of forbidden foods in order to be Chayav?
2. ... a Koseves ha'Gasah on Yom Kipur?

(b) Is this not strange that the time limit for the *large* Koseves ha'Gasah should be equivalent to that of the *small* k'Zayis?

(a) What is the case of Chatzi P'ras, and what did Rava ask regarding its time limit?

(b) Rav Papa answered that it is not d'Oraysa anyway.
What did he mean by that?

(c) In any case, how can Rav Papa have made such a statement, considering that, elsewhere, he learned from a Pasuk in Shemini "Lo Sitam'u Bahem ve'Nitmeisem Bam", that P'sul Gevi'ah is d'Oraysa?

(d) What do we actually learn from that Pasuk?

(a) Why would we have thought that the salt on a raw piece of meat will not combine with the meat to make up a Koseves ha'Gasah?

(b) Why in fact, does it do so?

(c) Why would we have thought that brine on top of vegetables should not combine to make up the Shiur on Yom Kipur?

(d) And why, does it in fact, combine?

(a) How do we define 'Achilah Gasah' on Yom Kipur?

(b) Why is one not Chayav for eating Terumah b'Achilah Gasah?

(c) Resh Lakish exempts a Zar who eats Terumah, Achilah Gasah, from having to pay the extra fifth.
Why is that? Is this speaking be'Shogeg or be'Meizid?

(d) Then why must he pay the principle?