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1)

(a) The Beraisa states that even a Yevamah with whom one of the brothers performed *Chalitzah*, is obligated to wait three months.
When does the three-month waiting period begin, from the death of the Yevamah's husband, or from the time of the Chalitzah?

(b) According to Rav, a divorced woman is obligated to wait three months before marrying from the time she received the Get.
What does Shmuel say?

(c) Why must we say that, even according to Rav, the husband was not secluded with his wife from the time that he wrote the Get?

(d) Why, in Rav's opinion, is a Chalutzah not obligated to wait three months from the time of the Chalitzah (in a similar fashion to a divorcee)?

(a) What does Rav Nachman Amar Shmuel learn from the Pasuk in Lech-Lecha "Lihyos Lecha l'Elokim u'le'Zar'acha Acharecha"?

(b) Rava asks on this from a Ger and Giyores who were married and converted (who are obligated to separate, even though their seed is clearly established anyway).
How *is* Havchanah applicable to them?

(c) According to Rava, the reason for the three-month period is that otherwise a man might marry his paternal sister, perform Yibum with his maternal sister and that he might cause his mother or his brother's wife to believe that she is exempt from Yibum (when really she is obligated). How will he ...

1. ... marry his paternal sister?
2. ... perform Yibum with his maternal brother's sister?
3. ... cause his mother to believe that she is exempt from Yibum?
4. ... cause his brother's wife to believe that she is exempt from Yibum?

(d) Only the second of these reasons apply to a Ger and a Giyores too (maybe he will perform Yibum with his maternal sister).
How is that?

(a) The Beraisa, which states that whereas all the women that Chazal forbade to perform Yibum or to marry are to avoid incest, the decree of waiting three months is because of the child, goes well with Rav Nachman Amar Shmuel, but how will Rava explain it?

(b) What causes us to think that it should not be necessary to wait three months only ...

1. ... one?
2. ... two and a half?

(c) And on what basis do we refute the contention ...

1. ... that one month will suffice?
2. ... that two and a half months are sufficient? What did Mar Zutra learn from the Pasuk in Shmuel 1 "Vayehi li'T'kufos ha'Yamim?

(a) It would be possible to ascertain whose baby the pregnant woman is carrying by waiting a week or two before allowing her to marry, and then, three months from the death of her first husband, examining her (breasts) to see if she is pregnant.
What would this prove?

(b) Then why do we not do so (to spare her waiting unnecessarily)?

(c) Why is measuring the depth of her footsteps in the sand not a reliable gauge?

(a) Chazal forbade a man to marry a woman during her period of pregnancy and whilst she is feeding.
What if he did?

(b) We initially ascribe the former decree to the fact that she might cause the baby's death should she become pregnant again.
On what grounds do we reject that?

(c) And on what grounds do we reject the contention that it is because she might squash the baby to death during Tashmish?

(d) Then what *is* the reason for this decree?

6)

(a) If Chazal were concerned about causing the death of the feeding baby with regard to marrying a pregnant woman, why did they not decree, forbidding Tashmish whenever one's wife becomes pregnant?

(b) They nevertheless decreed, forbidding her to marry while she is feeding, because her husband will not be willing to pay for someone else's baby.
But why can she not go ahead and marry, and, if necessary, claim eggs and milk from her first husband's heirs?

8)

(a) Rebbi Asi told Rebbi Elazar that Rebbi Yochanan ruled like Rebbi Yossi in our Mishnah.
What did Rebbi Elazar comment on that? Why did he say that?

(b) What does Rebbi Meir in a Beraisa say about a woman who is angry with her husband, or if he or she could not have children, or if she was obviously not pregnant, for whatever reason? What do we prove from there?

(c) What is the difference between an Aylonis and a woman 'who cannot have children'?

(a) Rebbi Chiya bar Aba says that Rebbi Yochanan retracted from his previous ruling (because of the Beraisa that was quoted in the name of the Chachamim of s Kerem be'Yavneh - Rav Yosef adds).
Why was the Sanhedrin called by that name?

(b) What did Rebbi Yishmael the son of Rebbi Yochanan ben Berokah in that Beraisa?

(c) Rav Yirmiyah asked how Rebbi Yochanan could possibly rule like Rebbi Yossi in our Mishnah, when he always follows the opinion of a S'tam Mishnah, and our Mishnah states S'tam that *all women* are obligated to wait three months.
On what grounds did Rav Zerika dismiss Rav Yirmiyah's Kashya out of hand?

(a) What is the Din in the case of ...

1. ... S'tam ve'Achar-Kach Machlokes?
2. ... Machlokes ve'Achar-Kach S'tam?

(b) Does it make any difference whether the S'tam is learned in the same Masechta or in a different one?

(c) And what is the Din in the case of ...

1. ... a S'tam Mishnah and Machlokes in a Beraisa?
2. ... a Machlokes in the Mishnah and a S'tam Beraisa?

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