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1)

(a) 'Mosif Od Dinar, u'Podeh es ha'Nechasim ha'Elu'.
Seeing as the borrower has no right to declare the mortgaged property Hekdesh, why should the creditor need to pay anything?

(b) How do we reconcile this Mishnah in Erchin with Rava, who says '*Hekdesh*, Chametz ve'Shichrur Mafki'in mi'Yedei Shi'bud'?

(c) Abaye says 'Lemafrei'a Hu Govah'.
What is the case, and what is Abaye's reason?

(d) Rava says 'Mi'kahn u'Lehaba Hu Govah' Why?

(a) Reuven sold a field to Shimon with Acherayos (an undertaking to reimburse Shimon, should a creditor claim it). Because Shimon had no money however, he transferred payment of the field into a loan, which he duly documented. Then Reuven died.
What happened next, and what did Rami bar Chama rule?

(b) What could Shimon have done, according to Rava, had he been smart?

(c) The source of Rava's Din is a statement by Rav Nachman.
What did Rav Nachman say?

(d) How does this appear to contradict Rava's earlier statement 'Mi'kahn u'Lehaba Hu Govah'?

(a) The Gemara answers the Kashya on Rava with 'Shibuda de'Rebbi Nasan'.
What is 'Shibuda de'Rav Nasan'?

(b) What is the source of Rebbi Nasan's Din?

(c) How does this resolve the apparent discrepancy in Rava's two statements?

(a) The Gemara asks on Rava from our Mishnah, which permits deriving benefit after Pesach from Chametz that a Jew mortgaged to a non-Jew against a loan. What is the Kashya?

(b) How does the Gemara answer the Kashya?

(a) The Tana Kama in a Beraisa rules that if a Jew lent money to a gentile against the gentile's Chametz, he will *not* transgress after Pesach, whereas according to Rebbi Meir, he *will*.
How might this be connected to the Machlokes between Abaye and Rava (whether a creditor acquires the mortgaged property retroactively or not)?

(b) What does the Seifa of the Beraisa say that forces us to retract from this explanation?

(c) As a result, the Gemara connects the Machlokes to Rebbi Yitzchok, who holds Ba'al-Chov Koneh Mashkon (a ruling with which, on principle, everyone in our Sugya agrees. How do we now explain the entire Beraisa?

(d) From where does Rebbi Yitzchak learn that 'Ba'al Chov Koneh Mashkon'?

6)

(a) Having established that a gentile does not acquire a security even from a Jew, how do we now explain the Reisha of our Mishnah 'Nochri she'Hilveh es Yisrael Al Chemtzo, Achar ha'Pesach Mutar be'Hana'ah', notwithstanding the fact that the Jew placed the Chametz in the gentile's possession?

(b) What is 'Pas Purni'?

(c) The Beraisa renders a Jew who received a security of Pas Purni from a gentile Patur (for which presumably, he did not accept responsibility), but renders him Chayav if he said 'Higatich'!
How does this prove the answer that we gave in a. to explain our Mishnah?

1. ... if the shop belongs to a Jew and the salesmen are gentiles?
2. ... if the shop belongs to a gentile and the salesmen are Jews?

8)

(a) Is one obligated to destroy Chametz on which a pile of rubble fell before Pesach?

(b) What constitutes 'Harei Zeh ki'Mevu'ar', and how deep is that?

(c) Does the Chametz require 'Bitul'?

(d) Shmuel rules that the only way to guard money effectively is by burying it.
How deep must the money be buried, and why does it have a different Shiur than Chametz?

(a) 'ha'Ochel Terumas Chametz ba'Pesach be'Shogeg, Meshalem Keren ve'Chomesh'.
Does 'be'Shogeg' refer to Terumah, to Chametz or to both?

(b) Why is he Chayav to pay, considering that Chametz on Pesach has no value?

(a) 'be'Mezid Patur mi'Tashlumin u'mi'Demei Eitzim'.
Does 'be'Mezid' refer to Terumah, to Chametz or to both?

(b) Why is the Din of 'be'Shogeg' different than that of 'be'Mezid'?

(c) What does 'Demei Eitzim' mean in this context?