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1)

(a) Up to when does the prohibition of drinking wine extend, if someone says 'Konem Yayin she'Eini To'em ha'Yom'?

(b) What is the difference between 'Shabbos Zu' and 'Shavu'a Zeh' on the one hand, and 'Chodesh Zeh' and 'Shanah Zu' on the other?

(c) What is the alternative way of explaining 've'Shabbos le'she'Avar', ve'Rosh Chodesh le'ha'Ba', ve'Rosh Hashanah le'Asid Lavo', u'Shevi'is she'Avrah'?

(d) On what grounds do we reject the alternative explanation? How do we prove this from the case in Rosh Hashanah 'ha'Mudar Hana'ah me'Chaveiro ... '?

(a) Up to when would the prohibition apply, if one were to say 'Yom Echad', 'Shabbos Achas', 'Chodesh Echad', 'Shanah Achas' or 'Shavu'a Echad'?

(b) What is the difference whether one says 'Konem ... ad ha'Pesach' or 'ad she'Yehei ha'Pesach'?

(c) According to Rebbi Meir 'ad Lifnei ha'Pesach' implies until Pesach arrives.
Why is that?

(d) What does Rebbi Yossi say?

(a) 'Konem Yayin she'Ani To'em ha'Yom, Eino Asur Ela ad she'Techshach'. Why does Rebbi Yirmiyah bar Aba say that, when nighttime arrives, the Neder needs to be revoked by a Chacham?

(b) What did he answer Abaye, who asked him why it is that the Chachamim did not also require someone who said 'Yom Echad' to have his Neder revoked by a Chacham at the end of the twenty-four hour period, on account of someone who said 'Hayom'?

(c) What sort of time-period does a Neder for one day imply?

4)

(a) How long does a Ta'anis Yachid (a private fast) last?

(b) Why does it not need to be revoked like other Nedarim of 'ha'Yom'?

(c) How does the Rashba explain the difference between a Ta'anis Yachid (vis-a-vis 'Yom Echad') and a regular case of 'ha'Yom'?

(d) On what grounds do we reject his explanation?

6)

(a) Mereimar quoting Ravina's father in the name of Rav Yosef, told Ravina that Rebbi Yirmiyah bar Aba (who requires the Neder of 'ha'Yom to be revoked') conforms with Rebbi Nasan (who considers someone who declares a Neder as if he had constructed a Bamah ... ).
What did he mean by that? Why is the decree in itself not sufficient reason?

(b) In that case, why do we need Mereimar's reason to issue the decree?

(a) We learned in our Mishnah ...

1. ... 'Shabbos Zu, Asur be'Chol ha'Shabbos Kulah, ve'ha'Shabbos le'she'Avar'.
   Why is this not obvious? How might we have otherwise interpreted 'Shabbos Zu'?
2. ... 'Chodesh Zeh, Asur be'Chol ha'Chodesh, ve'Rosh Chodesh le'ha'Ba'.
   Why is this too, not obvious?

(b) What is the reason for this Halachah?

(a) What can we learn from this latter Din with regard to the wording of the date on documents?

(b) What will be the Din if, on the second of Ellul, shall we say, someone dates the Sh'tar accordingly?

(c) What does the Rashba citing Tosfos say about dating a Get that is written on the first day of Rosh Chodesh?

(a) What She'eilah do we ask regarding someone who says 'Konem Yayin she'Eini To'em Yom'?

(b) On what grounds do we refute the proof from our Mishnah 'Konem Yayin ... ha'Yom, Ein Asur Ela ad she'Techshach', from which we can infer that if he had said 'Yom', the prohibition would last for twenty-four hours?

(a) The Beraisa says in the case of 'Konem Yayin she'Ani To'em ha'Shanah, Asur Bah u'be'Iburah'.
Why must the Tana be speaking when the Noder declared the Neder at the beginning of the year? What would be the Din if he made the same Neder in Sh'vat?

(b) On what grounds do we attempt to reject the literal interpretation of the Beraisa?

(c) Then what *does* the Tana mean? How will that help us to resolve our She'eilah (of whether 'Yom' is like 'ha'Yom' or 'Yom Echad')?

(d) We finally accept the literal interpretation of the Beraisa.
What is then the Chidush?

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