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1)

(a) Who must be the author of our Mishnah, which begins the list of those Nedarim that are not valid with 'Chulin she'Ochal Lach', inferring 'La'Chulin she'Ochal Lach', *are*?

(b) Why then, does the Tana need to repeat it here, having already taught us this case in the first Perek?

(c) There would have been no problem had we been able to establish our Mishnah like Rebbi Meir, to teach us that this is not a case of 'mi'Chelal La'av ... '.
Why is it not possible to do so?

(d) On what grounds do we reject Ravina's contention, that the Tana mentions 'Chulin' to teach us that the entire Reisha does not need Hatarah at all (just like Chulin, where there is no case of Davar ha'Nadur, which might cause us to decree on account of it)?

(a) The source for 'be'Davar ha'Nadur, ve'Lo be'Davar ha'Asur' is the Pasuk "Ish ki Yidor Neder ... ". How do we know that the Pasuk is not needed for itself (to forbid a Davar ha'Nadur), and not for its inference?

(b) What do we then mean when we ask - 'I Hachi, be'Davar ha'Asur Nami, di'Chesiv "Le'esor Isar al Nafsho"?

(c) How do we resolve the two Pesukim?

(d) On what grounds do we reject the previous contention (that one Pasuk comes for Hatfasah be'Davar ha'Nadur, and the other, for Davar ha'Asur)?

(a) We have already learned that of the four cases presented in the Mishnah of Isarim ('Hareini she'Lo Ochal Basar ... Yom she'Yom she'Meis bo Aviv', Yom she'Meis Bo Rabo ... '), the only Chidush is that of 'Yom she'Neherag bo Gedalyah ben Achikam', since it is already Asur mi'de'Rabbanan to eat (anything at all) on that day.
How did we initially explain the Chidush in the other three cases?

(b) How do we reconcile our Sugya, which learns the Chidush of Isar (a personal Isur) from "Le'esor Isar" with the Sugya in Shevu'os, which learns it from "Ish Ki Yidor Neder la'Hashem"?

(c) Why is Hatfasah not effective on a Shevu'ah?

(d) This is the opinion of the Ran.
What do others say regarding Hatfasah on a Shevu'ah?

(a) Abaye resolves our Mishnah, which validates the Neder of 'Harei At Alai ke'Eima', with the Beraisa which says 'Lo Amar K'lum', by explaining the latter to mean 'Lo Amar K'lum' mi'd'Oraysa, and our Mishnah to mean 'mi'de'Rabbanan.
On what grounds does Rava disagree with Abaye's explanation?

(b) So how does *he* resolve the apparent discrepancy?

(c) We prove Rava's explanation from the Beraisa 'ha'Noder ba'Torah (which will be explained shortly) Lo Amar K'lum' (even though the comparison is not absolute, see Rosh). Rebbi Yochanan concludes 've'Tzarich She'eilah le'Chacham'.
What does Rav Nachman add?

5)

(a) Why is the Neder of someone who swears by the Torah invalid?

(b) What will be the Din if someone swears by what is written in the Torah?

(a) According to the Ra'avad, the Beraisa is talking literally about a Neder (and not a Shevu'ah, as we previously explained).
What is then the case?

(b) What will be difference between 'Bah' and 'ba'Meh she'Kasuv Alav'?

(c) What makes the writing a Davar ha'Nadur?

(d) How else might we explain 'ba'Meh she'Kasuv Bah'?

(a) Rav Nachman explains that the Reisha of the Beraisa (the two cases that we just discussed) speaks when the person was holding the Torah in his arms. How does the Seifa, which states 'Bah u've'Meh she'Kasuv Bah, Devarav Kayamin', speak?

(b) In which case will the Din differ in the Seifa from the Reisha?

(a) In the Iba'is Eima, the entire Beraisa speaks when the Seifer-Torah is lying on the ground.
In which point does the Iba'is Eima argue with the first answer?

(b) Why is the Seifa ('Bah u've'Meh she'Kasuv Bah, Devarav Kayamin') then not redundant?

(c) In the third answer, we establishes the Reisha when the Torah is lying on the ground.
What is then the Halachah there?

(d) How do we now explain the Seifa? In which point do we now disagree with the previous answer?

(a) What do the following have in common ' Konem she'Ani Yashein'; Konem she'Ani Medaber'; 'ha'Omer le'Ishto, Konem she'Ani Meshamshech'?

(b) Why does the Tana of our Mishnah use the expression 'she'Ani Yashein ... ' and the Tana of the Mishnah in Shevu'os, 'she'Eini Yashein ... '?

(a) According to Rav Yehudah Amar Rav, if someone says 'Konem Eini be'Sheinah ha'Yom Im Ishan le'Machar', he is forbidden to sleep today, in case he sleeps tomorrow.
What does Rav Nachman say?

(b) Rav Yehudah concedes to Rav Nachman if he said 'Konem Eini be'Sheinah le'Machar Im Ishen ha'Yom'.
Why is that?

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