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1)

(a) We establish the Machlokes between Rebbi Ya'akov and Rebbi Yossi when the Noder said 'Harei Alai ki'Bechor Lifnei Zerikas Damim' (but in the case of 'Zeh ka'Zeh', both will agree that we go after the current time, when it is Mutar).
How does Rebbi Yossi learn that it is Mutar from the Pasuk in Matos "Ish ki Yidor Neder ... "?

(b) What does Rebbi Ya'akov learn from the continuation of the Pasuk " ... la'Hashem"?

(c) What does Rebbi Yossi learn from "la'Hashem"?

(d) Why does Rebbi Yossi prefer to include a Chatas ve'Asham from "la'Hashem" rather than a Bechor? What makes the former more of a Davar he'Nadur than the latter, seeing as both are obligatory?

(a) Although Rebbi Ya'akov concedes to the D'rashah "Ish ki Yidor Neder ... " (which precludes a Davar ha'Asur from Hatfasah), he nevertheless goes on to include a Bechor from "la'Hashem" (in spite of the apparent contradiction), because he holds like Rebbi.
What does Rebbi learn from the Pasuk in Re'ei "ha'Zachar Takdish"?

(b) How does Rebbi Yossi counter this D'rashah? Why does Bechor nevertheless remain a Davar ha'Asur, according to him?

4)

(a) On what basis do we establish the Beraisa which validates 'Imra, le'Imra and ke'Imra' (and the same with the other cases in our Mishnah, 'Dirim Eitzim, Ishim ... ') like Rebbi Meir?

(b) What problem do we then have with the Seifa, which concludes 've'Chulan, Lo Ochal Lach, Mutar'?

(c) We already solved this problem above on 11b.
What is the basic answer?

(a) The Tana Kama of our Mishnah validates 'Korban, Olah, Minchah ... she'Ani Ochal Lach'.
On grounds does Rebbi Yehudah disagree?

(b) What is the Chidush? Why does Rebbi Yehudah need to repeat this Halachah here?

(c) 'ha'Korban, ke'Korban, Korban she'Ochal Lach, Asur'.
Why is that?

(d) What would be the Din if he were to conclude ' ... Ochal Lach'?

(a) What will be the Din if he says 'le'Korban, Lo Ochal Lach' or 'le'Korban, she'Ochal Lach'.

(b) The Beraisa states 'Modim Chachamim (i.e. Rebbi Meir) le'Rebbi Yehudah be'Omer Hei Korban ... she'Ochal Lach, she'Mutar'.
What is the reason for that?

(c) How do we reconcile this with our Mishnah 'ha'Korban she'Ochal Lach Asur' (which we established like Rebbi Meir)?

(d) How can Rebbi Meir validate 'le'Korban Lo Ochal Lach', when he holds 'mi'Chelal La'av *I* Ata Shomei'a Hein'?

7)

(a) What do the following have in common: 'Konem Pi Medaber Imach'; 'Yadi Osah Imach'; 'Ragli Mehaleches Imach'?

(b) What are the ramifications of each of these statements?

(c) According to the Mishnah later, what stringency does Shevu'os have over Nedarim?

(d) How do we then reconcile the Tana of our Mishnah, which validates a Neder concerning speech (which is abstract), with that Tana? How do we prove this?

8)

(a) The Tana in our Mishnah lists a variety of cases where the Neder is not valid.
Having mentioned ...

1. ... 'ke'Basar Chazir', why did he see fit to mention 'ka'Avodas Kochavim'?
2. ... 'ka'Avodas Kochavim', why did he see fit to mention 'ke'Oros Levuvin?

(b) And having mentioned 'Neveilos u'T'reifos' (which are also Tamei [presumably, the Tana mentions T'reifos, which are not Tamei, because of Neveilos, since they often appear together]), why does the Tana need to mention 'ki'Shekatzim u'Remasim'?

(c) What do all the cases in the Mishnah have in common? Why is the Neder invalid?

(d) Then why does the Tana insert 'ke'Chalas Aharon ve'chi'Terumaso' in the list? Why are these not considered a Davar ha'Nadur?

(a) If someone says to his wife 'Harei At Alai ke'Eima, Poschin Lo Pesach mi'Makom Acher'.
Why? About whom is the Tana speaking?

(b) This Halachah is not confined to 'ke'Eima'?
What else might the Tana have given as an example?

(c) What does the Tana mean when he says 'mi'Makom Acher'? What is the Chidush?

(d) Will this Halachah apply to all Nedarim that an Am ha'Aretz makes through a Davar ha'Asur?

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