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1)

(a) Alternatively, we establish the author of our Mishnah (which differentiates between Neder and Nedavah) as Rebbi Yehudah.
How do we then amend Rebbi Yehudah's statement 'Tov mi'Zeh u'mi'Zeh, Noder u'Mekayem'?

(b) What is now the Machlokes between Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yehudah?

(c) Why is Rebbi Yehudah not afraid that the Noder might delay his Korban until after three Regalim?

(d) And what does he mean when he writes 'ke'Nidvosam Nadar be'Nazir'? How does *he* explain Nedavah by a (Chatas) Nazir?

(a) Rebbi Yehudah just permitted a Chatas Nedavah in the form of a Chatas Nazir.
Why should anyone want to donate a Chatas?

(b) What problem does Rebbi Shimon have with donating a Chatas via Nezirus?
What does he learn from the Pasuk in Naso "ve'Chiper Alav Asher Chata al ha'Nefesh"?

(c) Abaye points out that three Tana'im all hold on principle that a Nazir is a sinner. We have already discussed Rebbi Shimon and Shimon ha'Tzadik (who, we saw earlier holds that a Nazir is a sinner).
What is the basic difference between the two opinions?

(d) The third in the group is Rebbi Elazar ha'Kapar b'Rivi.
What does *he* say? Which sin does a Nazir transgress, according to him?

(a) According to Rebbi Shimon and Rebbi Elazar ha'Kapar, why does the Torah choose to explain the Nazir's sin specifically by a Nazir Tamei?

(b) How are these two sins hinted in the words "me'Asher Chata al ha'Nefesh"?

(c) What does Rebbi Shimon extrapolate from the above that one should not do?

(a) What do the following have in common ...

1. ... Konem, Konei'ach, Ko'nes?
2. ... Cherek, Cherech, Cheref?
3. ... Nazik, Nazi'ach, Pazi'ach?
4. ... Shevusah, Shekukah, Noder be'Mohi?

(b) The Kinuyim of Cherem in Galil apply even S'tam but not those in Yehudah.
Then when *do* they apply in Yehudah?

(c) Why the difference?

(d) What does 'Noder be'Mohi' mean?

(a) According to Rebbi Yochanan, the Kinuyim are expressions adopted by the Nochrim.
What does Resh Lakish say? What does he mean by 'Badu Lahem mi'Libam'?

(b) We initially suggest that Resh Lakish's reason is because the Chachamim wanted to avoid people using Hashem's Name unnecessarily, and the word 'Korban' would encourage them to say 'Korban la'Hashem'.
What is wrong with this suggestion?

(c) So we then suggest that maybe they will say 'la'Hashem Korban'.
What is wrong with that? What is the real suspicion?

(d) What does Rebbi Shimon extrapolate from the Pasuk in Vayikra "Korban la'Hashem"? What 'Kal va'Chomer' does he make from that?

6)

(a) Beis Shamai in a Beraisa forbids even 'Kinuyei Kinuyin'.
What do Beis Hillel say?

(b) What is the meaning of 'Kinuyei Kinuyin'?

(c) How do we try to connect the Machlokes Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel with that of Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish (whether Kinuyim are expressions used by Nochrim or invented by the Chachamim)?

(d) We conclude that even Beis Hillel hold like Rebbi Yochanan (that they are expressions used by Nochrim), and they simply argue over whether the Nochrim also use these expressions or not.
What is the alternative way of explaining the Machlokes?

(a) What do the following have in common ...

1. ... Mekanmana, Makanchana, Mekansana?
2. ... Tachrakim, Charakim, Charafim?
3. ... Mechazkana, Menazchana, Mefichana?
4. ... Shevuva'el, Shevusi'el, Shekuka'el?

(b) On what grounds do we reject the original contention that Shevu'el is the first of the Kinuyei Kinuyin of Shevu'ah?

(c) The She'eilah regarding whether 'Mifchazna', 'Mischazna' and 'Mis'azna' are Kinuyei Kinuyim, remains unanswered, and so does that of 'Kinma' which Ravina asked Rav Ashi, and 'Kinah' which Rav Acha B'rei de'Rav Chiya asked Rav Ashi.
What prompted ...

1. ... Ravina to ask about 'Kinma'? What else might 'Kinma' mean?
2. ... Rav Acha B'rei de'Rav Chiya to ask about 'Kinah'.
   What else might 'Kinah' mean?

(d) What does Shmuel say about 'Ashivsa', 'Ashkika' 'Karinsha'? Are they Kinuyei Kinuyim of Shevu'ah or not?

(a) According to Raban Shimon ben Gamliel, if someone says 'be'Mohi' alone, his Neder is not valid. What must he say for the Neder to be valid?

(b) Seeing as 'Mumsa' means a Shevu'ah, why does the Tana of our Mishnah say '*Nadar* be'Mohi', and not just 'Shevu'ah, Shekukah be'Mohi'?

(c) According to others, Raban Shimon ben Gamliel is differentiating between 'be'Mumi' (which is the equivalent of 'be'Mohi') or 'be'Mumsa', and 'Mumi' or 'Mumsa'.
What is the difference between them?

(d) Then why does the Tana of our Mishnah add the word '*Nadar* be'Mohi'. Why did he not just say 'Shevusah, Shekukah be'Mohi'?

(a) What does 'la'Chulin she'Ochal Lach' imply? What is therefore the Halachah?

(b) What does 'Dachi' mean?

(c) What will be the Din if he says ...

1. ... 'Lo Dachi (Kikar Zeh)' or 'Lo Tahor'?
2. ... 'Tamei', 'Nosar', Pigul', or 'Asur'?

(d) Why is the Lashon 'Asur' valid, considering that it incorporates things which are automatically Asur (Davar ha'Asur) on which one cannot be Matfis?

(a) According to some texts, the Tana writes 'Tahor' without a 'Lamed'.
What is the problem with that?

(b) Why *did* the Tana do that?

(c) What do 'Tamei', 'Nosar', Pigul', and 'Asur' all have in common? Why is it unnecessary to mention a 'Kaf' at the beginning of each of them?

(d) How do we reconcile this with the Mishnah later 'ha'Omer Korban Olah, Minchah ... Rebbi Yehudah Matir' (because he did not say 'ke'Olah, ke'Minchah', even though Olah and Minchah too, denote Isur?

(a) 'Tamei' can also pertain to Terumah.
So how do we know that the Noder was referring to Korbanos?

(b) In the third group listed in our Mishnah, the Tana includes 'ke'Imra', 'ke'Dirim', 'ke'Eitzim', 'ke'Ishim', 'ke'Mizbei'ach', 'ke'Heichal', 'ki'Yerushalayim'.
Why does this group required a 'Kaf' (even though the previous one did not)?

(c) What is the meaning of 'ke'Imra'?

(d) The Neder 'ke'Imra' might be valid because even though, this could pertain to a lamb of Chulin, we again apply the principle 'S'tam Nedarim Lehachmir'.
What alternative reason is there for the Neder to be valid?

(a) What is the significance of ...

1. ... 'ke'Dirim'?
2. ... 'ke'Eitzim'?
3. ... 'ke'Ishim'?

(b) 'Rebbi Yehudah Omer, ha'Omer Yerushalayim, Lo Amar K'lum'. Why is that?
What is the difference between 'Yerushalayim' and 'ki'Yerushalayim'?

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