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1)

(a) When the Tana writes 'ke'Nidrei Resha'im Nadar be'Nazir, u've'Korban u'vi'Shevu'ah', what area of Neder is he referring to?

(b) What exactly is the case of ...

1. ... 'be'Nazir'?
2. ... 'be'Korban'?
3. ... 'bi'Shevu'ah'?

(c) Why is his Neder valid if he says 'ke'Nidrei Resha'im' but not if he says 'ke'Nidrei Kesheirim' (despite the fact that all the other conditions mentioned above are met)?

(d) What will the Din be if he says ...

1. ... 'ke'Nidvas Resha'im'?
2. ... 'ke'Nidvas Kesheirim'?
3. ... 'ki'Nidvas Kesheirim' (with regard to a Shevu'ah - 'Heimenu she'Lo Ochal'), bearing in mind that it is commendable to make a Shevu'ah if it is to encourage oneself to perform a Mitzvah?

(a) What is the difference between Neder and Nedavah with regard to ...

1. ... bringing a Korban?
2. ... adopting Nezirus? How does this connect with Neder and Nedavah by Korban?

(b) What might we have thought had the Noder just said ...

1. ... 'ke'Nidrei Resha'im' (without adding 'Hareini, 'Alai' or 'Heimenu')?
2. ... 'ke'Nidrei Resha'im Hareini' - and a Nazir was not passing in front of him at that moment?

(c) What does the Ran comment on his Rebbes, who require the full Lashon, despite the fact that a Nazir was passing in front of the Noder, on the grounds that 'Hareini' on its own is not as strong a Lashon as 'Ehei', which is effective on its own?

(d) Then why does the Tana need to add 'ke'Nidrei Resha'im Hareini, Alai or Heimenu'? Why will 'Hareini' or 'Alai' not suffice on its own?

(a) We ask how we know that 'Heimenu bi'Shevu'ah' does not mean that he undertakes to eat the loaf, rather than not to eat it.
What is the problem? So what if it does?

(b) How does Rava resolve the problem?

(c) If the Noder said that, what is the Tana's Chidush?

(a) Explaining the Pesukim in Koheles "es Asher Tidor Shaleim"; "Tov Asher Lo Sidor, mi'she'Tidor ve'Lo Teshalem", Rebbi Meir says in a Beraisa that it is better not to make a Neder than to make one, even if one fulfills it.
Why is that?

(b) What leads us to contend that Rebbi Meir does not differentiate between a Neder and a Nedavah?

(c) What does Rebbi Yehudah say?

(d) According to Rebbi Yehudah, what is the Pasuk coming to tell us? Is it feasible to suggest that it is better to make a Neder and to break it than not to make it at all?

(a) Why does the above Beraisa present us with a problem vis-a-vis our Mishnah?

(b) How do we establish our Mishnah like Rebbi Meir and still reconcile our Mishnah with the Beraisa?

(c) How will we then reconcile this with the Seifa of our Mishnah 'ke'Nidvosam *Nadar* be'Nazir'?

(d) This would seem to be difficult even if we had not established our Mishnah like Rebbi Meir, and some Rishonim therefore explain that we could indeed have asked it anyway.
How could we alternatively have answered the Kashya had we not established Rebbi Meir as the author of our Mishnah?

6)

(a) One was less likely to sin when bringing a Nedavah than when bringing a Neder if one did like Hillel ha'Zakein.
How did Hillel used to bring his Nedavos?

(b) Why, if not for Hillel, would there be no difference between Neder and Nedavah, despite the fact that a Nedavah carries with it less responsibility than a Neder?

(c) How will we now explain 'ke'Nidvas Kesheirim' in our Mishnah?

(a) We already learned above that Nedavah di'Nezirus refers to those who accept Nezirus with a full heart, such as the Beraisa of Shimon ha'Tzadik. What happened there with the man from the south? What did he say that so impressed Shimon ha'Tzadik?

(b) Which Korban did Shimon ha'Tzadik eat on that unique occasion?

(c) Why did he quote the Pasuk "Ish Ki Yafli ... Lehazir la'Hashem"?

(d) Why did he desist from eating the Korban Asham of other Nezirim who became Tamei?

(a) Why did Shimon ha'Tzadik restrict his stringency to an Asham Nazir, and not to other Ashamos, which were also brought because the owner had sinned?

(b) And why was he not afraid to eat from the Korban of a Nazir who had completed his term of Nezirus be'Taharah?

(c) In the above episode, was the Korban of a Nazir who became Tamei really Chulin ba'Azarah?

(d) Then why did Shimon ha'Tzadik decline to eat from it?

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