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1)

(a) We conclude that both Rav and Rebbi Nasan go after Umdena.
Then why does one of them rule like the Tana Kama in our Mishnah, and not like Rebbi Elazar ben Azaryah, who assesses the Chasan's intentions (to only give his betrothed Masayim once they are married)?

(b) 'Amar Rav Yitzchak bar Avdimi Mishum Rabeinu, Halachah ke'Rebbi Elazar ben Azaryah'.
Who is meant by 'Rabeinu'?

(c) Rav and Shmuel (among others) rule like Rebbi Elazar ben Azaryah. Rav Nachman among others, rules like the Tana Kama.
What did Rav Nachman have to say about someone who rules like Rebbi Elazar ben Azaryah?

(d) What is in fact, the Halachah?

(a) According to Rebbi Elazar ben Azaryah, Eirusin does not acquire the Kesuvah of Masayim. Ravin is not sure then what *does* acquire it.
What are the two possibilities?

(b) What do we try to prove from the Beraisa of Rav Yosef, which states that one only writes the Kesuvah because of 'the love of the first night'?

(c) We counter this however, from the Tana's reference to night.
What does prove? Considering that Bi'ah is permitted by day (in a dark room), why is 'night' a better proof for Bi'ah than it is for Chupah?

(d) How do we refute this latter proof? What is the outcome of Ravin's She'eilah?

(a) Rav Ashi asks what the Din will be if the woman becomes a Nidah during the Chupah.
What is Rav Ashi's She'eilah? If, as we just concluded, Rebbi Elazar ben Azaryah maintains that it is Chupah which acquires, what difference will it make whether she is a Nidah or not?

(b) What is the outcome of Rav Ashi's She'eilah?

(a) In a Mishnah in Bava Basra, Rebbi Yossi holds that, if someone pays part of a debt, the creditor writes him a receipt.
What does Rebbi Yehudah say? Why does he not like the idea of writing a receipt?

(b) How does Rebbi Yirmiyah resolve the apparent contradiction between Rebbi Yehudah in Bava Basra and Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah, who permits the woman to write her husband a receipt for part of her Kesuvah?

(c) Abaye establishes Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah by a regular receipt, dispensing with the Kashya in a different way.
What basic distinction does he make between the two cases?

(d) It is easy to understand why Abaye declines to learn like Rebbi Yirmiyah, seeing as the Tana in our Mishnah does not speak about writing the receipt into the Kesuvah.
But on what grounds does Rebbi Yirmiyah decline to learn like Abaye?

(a) What does Rebbi Meir in a Beraisa say about a man who betroths a woman on the condition that he is exempt from feeding her, clothing her or marital obligations?

(b) What does Rebbi Yehudah say?

(c) How do we resolve the apparent contradiction between Rebbi Yehudah here and Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah, who requires that when the woman claims that she has received part of the Kesuvah, she is obligated to write it in the Kesuvah, and that saying it verbally is not sufficient?

(a) Rebbi Yehudah says in a Mishnah later, that unless a man writes that he relinquishes his rights over his wife's property, the Peiros and the Peirei Peiros forever, he may continue to eat Peirei Peiros.
What are 'Peirei Peiros'?

(b) What is the meaning of 'Kosev' in that Mishnah?

(c) How do we explain this in view of what we just concluded with regard to a Kesuvah, which, according to Rebbi Yehudah, is only de'Rabbanan, for which reason he is strict there (forbidding the woman to relinquish her Kesuvah verbally)?

7)

(a) The Tana Kama says in a Mishnah in D'mai that if two ass-drivers arrive in town, and one of them declares his own produce to be Chadash and un'Ma'asered, whereas his friend's is Yashan and Ma'asered, he is not believed.
What does 'Chadash' and 'Yashan' mean?

(b) Why can they not refer to the Isur of Chadash, as they imply?

(c) Why is the ass-driver not believed?

(a) What does Rebbi Yehudah say in the above Mishnah in D'mai?

(b) What is the problem with Rebbi Yehudah there, in view of his opinion in our Mishnah, where he took a strict line, requiring the condition there to be in writing?

(c) Abaye answers that it is only by a Vadai de'Rabbanan that Rebbi Yehudah is stringent, but not by a Safek.
What does Rava say?

(a) What do we infer from the words of Rebbi Meir, who says in our Mishnah *'Kol ha'Poches* li'Besulah mi'Masayim ... Harei Zu Be'ilas Z'nus'? How much will the woman actually receive when her Kesuvah falls due?

(b) Then what turns all their Bi'os into Bi'os Z'nus?

(c) What can we infer from Rebbi Meir who holds 'Kol ha'Masneh al Mah she'Kasuv *ba'Torah*, T'na'o Bateil'?

(d) How do we then explain his opinion in our Mishnah, where, as we just explained, he holds that in the case of Kesuvah (which we also explained earlier is only de'Rabbanan), his condition is Bateil?

(a) We just discussed the Machlokes between Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah regarding the woman foregoing part of her Kesuvah. Rebbi Yossi in a Beraisa has a third opinion.
What does *he* say?

(b) On what grounds does the Tana Kama in another Beraisa, forbid a man to designate Metaltelin for his wife's Kesuvah?

(c) In order to establish their Machlokes, we explain that they argue when the husband accepted responsibility for them.
How does that explain the opinion of the Rabbanan?

(d) On what grounds does Rebbi Yehudah then argue with the Tana Kama? What is the basis of their Machlokes?

12)

(a) When Rav Ivya's wife (the sister of Rami bar Chama) lost her Kesuvah, Rav Yosef quoted them a statement by Rav Yehudah Amar Shmuel.
What does Rav Yehudah Amar Shmuel say?

(b) Abaye objected to Rav Yosef's ruling however, on the basis of a statement by Rav Nachman Amar Shmuel.
What did Rav Nachman Amar Shmuel say?

(c) We learned aearlier (on Daf 51a.) that if a man did not write his wife wshom he married a Besulah, a Kesuvah, she nevertheless receives Masayim; whereas if he married her an Almanah, she receives a Manah. We could reconcile that ruling with our Sugya by esablishing it in a place where it is customary not to write a Kesuvah.
How else might we reconcile the two Sugyos?

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