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Bava Basra, 76
BAVA BASRA 76& 77- sponsored by Harav Ari Bergmann of Lawrence, N.Y., out of
love for the Torah and for those who study it.
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1) ACQUIRING A "SHTAR" THROUGH "MESIRAH"
QUESTION: The Tana'im agree that a Shtar can be acquired through Mesirah.
They dispute whether Mesirah alone accomplishes the Kinyan, or whether the
Mesirah must be accompanied by the writing of an additional Shtar, in order
to show that the buyer is acquiring not only the paper but also the debt
that is written in it.
The RASHBAM (76b, DH Lo Kasha) writes that whenever an object can be
acquired through Meshichah, it cannot be acquired through Mesirah. Meshichah
is considered a stronger sign of ownership, and therefore it is not the
common practice to transfer the ownership of an object through Mesirah when
it can be transferred through Meshichah. Since it is not the common
practice, Mesirah does not work.
The Rishonim (TOSFOS DH Sefinah) cite a source for this from the Gemara
later (86a) which makes a similar statement with regard to Hagbahah. The
Gemara there says that any object that can be lifted cannot be acquired
through Meshichah, because common practice is to transfer its ownership
through Hagbahah, which is a stronger sign of ownership than Meshichah. How,
then, can a person acquire a Shtar through Mesirah? Since it is possible to
do Meshichah to the Shtar (such as in a Simta, which is what the Beraisa is
discussing), it should be necessary to perform Meshichah! Furthermore,
according to the Gemara later (86a), even Meshichah should not suffice; it
should be necessary to perform Hagbahah in order to acquire the Shtar!
(RAMBAN and Rishonim)
ANSWERS:
(a) RABEINU YONAH writes that when the Beraisa uses the word "Mesirah," it
is referring to what is normally called "Hagbahah," and not to Mesirah. That
is, the buyer must receive the Shtar and hold it above the ground such that
he is Koneh it through an act of Hagbahah. Why, then, does the Beraisa use
the word "Mesirah?" The answer is that the act of Hagbahah normally means
that the buyer lifts up the object from wherever it happens to be resting,
even from the ground. A Shtar, however, is never placed on the ground, but
rather it is transferred directly from hand to hand. Since it is not common
to ask the buyer to lift up the Shtar from the ground, that form of Hagbahah
will *not* work to acquire the Shtar. Rather, a Hagbahah must be performed
through a transfer of the Shtar from the hand of the seller to the hand of
the Koneh. That is why the Beraisa describes the Hagbahah that is done to a
Shtar as "Mesirah."
Tosfos (DH Iy) explains the Gemara in a similar manner. When the Gemara says
that a Shtar can be acquired with Mesirah, the Gemara means that the Mesirah
is merely the addition of the stipulation that the Shtar must be handed over
by the seller -- to the Meshichah that is done to the Shtar (or the
Hagbahah, according to the Gemara on 86a that requires Hagbahah for objects
that can be lifted; see Tosfos 86a, DH Aval). Tosfos explains, however, that
the reason it must be handed over is not related to the common manner of
transferring ownership of a Shtar, but rather it is in order to show that
the buyer is acquiring not only the paper but the debt that is written on
it, which originally obligated the Shtar's author to the one who is now
selling the Shtar.
This seems to be the intention of the Rashbam as well (75b, DH v'Osiyos, and
76a, DH v'Osiyos b'Mesirah). The Rashbam describes the act of Mesirah that
is done with a Shtar as delivering the Shtar from the hand of the seller to
the hand of the buyer, in order to show that the debt, and not just the
paper, is being transferred.
The Acharonim use this explanation to answer a problematic point in the
rashbam. The Gemara initially assumed that a Shtar is acquired through
Meshichah. The Rashbam (75b, DH Osiyos, and 76a, DH uv'Shtar), however,
writes that even at that point the Gemara understood that a Shtar is
transferred through *Mesirah*. Why does the Rashbam mention Mesirah if the
Beraisa says "Meshichah?" (See MAHARSHA and RASHASH, 75b.)
The PNEI SHLOMO and the NIMUKEI HA'GRIV (on the Maharsha) explain that the
Rashbam holds, like Tosfos, that even according to the Gemara's conclusion
the Mesirah is done together with Meshichah. Therefore, the Rashbam explains
that even when the Gemara originally used the word "Meshichah," it meant
"Meshichah with Mesirah."
The factor that forced the Rashbam to learn this way in the Gemara's
original assumption is the question of Tosfos (DH Chasurei): Why did the
Gemara add the word "Mesirah" into the Beraisa, if the Beraisa mentions only
"Meshichah?" Instead of assuming that the Chachamim require Mesirah and
Rebbi Nasan requires Meshichah for a Shtar, it should have said that they
*both* require Meshichah for a Shtar! The answer to this question (as the
Rashba writes according to Rabeinu Yonah) is that the Gemara knew that
neither Mesirah alone nor Meshichah alone can acquire a Shtar. (Meshichah
does not show the transfer of a debt; only Mesirah shows the transfer of a
debt. On the other hand, Mesirah does not work to acquire Metaltelin that
can be acquired through Meshichah or Hagbahah.) Therefore, the Gemara used
the terms "Mesirah" and "Meshichah" interchangeably with regard to acquiring
a Shtar.
(b) The RAMBAN, RASHBA, and RAN explain that the rule that Hagbahah or
Meshichah is preferable to Mesirah does not apply to a Shtar. The reason for
this is because the Hagbahah or Meshichah is performed only with the paper,
but not with the debt which the paper, the Shtar, represents. With regard to
the debt, it makes no difference what kind of act is done to the Shtar; even
Mesirah can work to be Koneh the debt in the Shtar, and certainly Meshichah
and Hagbahah can work. Even according to these Rishonim, if the Shtar is
handed over with Mesirah, it would seem that the buyer acquires the paper as
well, for the purpose of proving that he now owns the debt (as the wording
of the Ran implies; see footnote 21 in He'oros to the Chidushei ha'Ran). The
Kinyan of the Shtar will be accomplished by being Koneh the debt, the
Shi'abud, since the Shtar was written to describe the Shi'abud and attest to
the ownership of the Shi'abud ("Afsera d'Shi'abud;" see Gemara earlier (53a)
and Kidushin (27a)). Tosfos, however, understands the acquisition of a
Shi'abud to occur in the opposite manner. First, the buyer must acquire the
paper which proves that there is a Shi'abud, and only then does he acquire
the Shi'abud.
76b
2) "MESHICHAH" FROM "RESHUS HA'RABIM" INTO A "SIMTA"
QUESTION: The Chachamim state that when a person wants to acquire a boat
which is in Reshus ha'Rabim, he can acquire it only through doing an act of
Meshichah. The Gemara asks that Meshichah is not effective in Reshus
ha'Rabim. The Gemara answers that the Chachamim mean to say that the boat
cannot be acquired until the buyer pulls the boat from Reshus ha'Rabim *into
a Simta*.
Why should pulling the boat into a Simta work to acquire the boat? We
learned earlier (75b) that according to Shmuel (whose opinion is the
Halachah), it does not suffice to pull a boat only a small amount, but
rather one must pull the boat completely out of the place in which it was
standing (such that the stern of the boat is now where the bow of the boat
was). Consequently, it should be necessary to pull the boat into a Simta,
*and* to continue pulling it until it has completely left its original place
in the Simta! Even according to Rav, it should be necessary to pull the boat
at least a small amount in the Simta. Why, then, does it suffice to pull it
into the Simta and no more?
ANSWERS:
(a) The RAMBAN (Kesuvos 31a, cited by the MAGID MISHNAH, Hilchos Mechirah
4:4) explains that although it is necessary, according to Shmuel, to pull a
boat its entire length, it is not necessary to do so in a Reshus in which
Meshichah works to acquire it. Our concern is only that when the Meshichah
is completed, the boat be resting entirely in a Reshus in which Meshichah
can be work to be Koneh. Therefore, when one pulls the boat from Reshus
ha'Rabim to a Simta, the buyer will acquire the boat as soon as the entire
boat enters the Simta.
The logic for this ruling is as follows. Meshichah works in a manner similar
to the Kinyan d'Oraisa of Chatzer. It works to acquire the object by placing
the object into the buyer's domain. If the seller places his object in a
Simta or in a jointly-owned Chatzer, the area beneath the object becomes the
seller's for his momentary use as long as the object is there. Therefore,
that area cannot be considered the Chatzer of the buyer to acquire the
object for him, and he must take it out of that area. When the buyer pulls
the object to another area in the Simta or in the jointly-owned Chatzer, the
new area beneath the object now becomes the buyer's property, and thus it
can be Koneh the object for him, similar to the manner in which his Chatzer
is Koneh for him. Meshichah does not work in Reshus ha'Rabim, since nobody
has permission to park an object there, because that area is designated as a
public thoroughfare. Therefore, when a buyer pulls an object to a place in
Reshus ha'Rabim, the area beneath the object does not become the buyer's for
the sake of keeping the object there and acquiring it. When the buyer pulls
the object from Reshus ha'Rabim into a Simta, the area in the Simta on which
the object now rests becomes his and can acquire the object for him, and he
does not need to pull the object any further in the Simta.
(b) The RAMBAM (Hilchos Mechirah 4:4, Perush ha'Mishnayos Bava Basra 5:7)
seems to say even more than this. The Rambam writes that if an object is in
Reshus ha'Rabim and the buyer pulls it with Meshichah into Reshus ha'Yachid
or into a Simta, as soon as *part* of the object leaves Reshus ha'Rabim, the
buyer acquires it. The MAGID MISHNAH explains that the Rambam also maintains
that the Meshichah may be performed in Reshus ha'Rabim as long as the object
*ends up* in Reshus ha'Yachid.
However, the Rambam is adding that even if only *part* of the object ends up
in Reshus ha'Yachid or in a Simta, the Meshichah acquires the object for the
buyer. Why is this? In Bava Metzia (8a) we find that if a person lifts up
part of an object of Hefker, such as a cloak, in his hands and the other
part is still resting on the ground, he does *not* acquire the object, since
part of it is still on the ground! Similarly, the VILNA GA'ON (Bi'ur ha'Gra
to the Shulchan Aruch 198:14) proves, from the Halachos of Shabbos, that the
*entire* object must reach the Reshus ha'Yachid in order for the buyer to
acquire it: the Halachah is that dragging an object partially into Reshus
ha'Rabim from Reshus ha'Yachid on Shabbos does not constitute the Melachah
of Hotza'ah (Shabbos 90b).
Perhaps the Rambam maintains that the second half of an object which is
outside of the Reshus of the buyer prevents the Kinyan from working only if
the Reshus in which that second half is resting in the seller's domain from
which the buyer is taking the object. The fact that the object is resting in
the seller's Reshus contradicts the Kinyan of the buyer's Chatzer.
Therefore, if the second half is in Reshus ha'Rabim, it does *not*
contradict the Kinyan of the buyer, and the Chatzer beneath part of the
object is Koneh the object for him. This is the way the SHA'AR HA'MELECH
Hilchos Geneivah 3:2 understands the Rambam here, inferring this point from
the wording the Rambam chooses.
This may answer the questions we asked on the Rambam. In Bava Metzia (8a),
the Gemara is discussing an object that is acquired from Hefker. Since the
Reshus ha'Rabim is the Reshus of Hefker in which the object was originally
lying, the fact that part of the cloak is still resting in Reshus ha'Rabim
is a contradiction to the Kinyan. Regarding the question from the Halachos
of Shabbos, resting in Reshus ha'Rabim is a contradiction to being in Reshus
ha'Yachid with regard to the Melachah of Hotza'ah. Therefore an object is
not considered to be "resting" ("Hanachah") in one of the two Reshuyos
unless it is entirely moved into that Reshus. (See also what we wrote in
Insights to Gitin 78:3:a.)
(c) The RA'AVAD (Hilchos Mechirah 4:4) seems to have a third approach. The
Ra'avad maintains that the Meshichah of the entire length of the object only
begins when the object enters the Simta. However, it is not necessary for
the entire object to enter the Simta in order to begin the Meshichah. As
soon as part of the object enters the Simta, the Meshichah begins.
Therefore, once the entire object has entered the Simta, a Meshichah has
been performed with the entire length of the object.
The Ra'avad adds that if an animal is pulled such that it puts a foreleg and
a hind leg into a Simta, it is considered a Meshichah and the buyer acquires
it, even though the other two legs are still in Reshus ha'Rabim. The Ra'avad
is also learning that a Simta can acquire, in theory, an object for the buyer even when only part of the object is resting in the Simta. However, he is
stringent with regard to requiring that the Meshichah must start only from
when the object enters the Simta (and thus, practically, the object must be
moved its entire length while in the Simta).
Some say that the Rambam also holds like the Ra'avad, except that he
maintains that any object other than a boat does not need to be pulled its
entire length. It suffices to drag it a small amount (like the ROSH (5:2)
writes). The reason why the Rambam maintains that bringing part of an object
into a Simta will be Koneh the object is because the object has moved a
small amount from the time that part of it entered the Simta. It is not
necessary to drag it its entire length in the Simta. (See Ra'avad there, and
RABEINU YERUCHAM 10:1.)
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