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1)

(a) Rebbi Meir learns in a Mishnah in Temurah 'Harei Zu Temuras Olah Temuras Shelamim, Harei Zu Temuras Olah'.
What is the case?

(b) What is the reason for Rebbi Meir's ruling?

(c) Rebbi Yossi agrees in a case where the owner specifically changed his mind.
What does he say in a case where he didn't?

(d) What happens to the animal?

(a) We ask what the Din will be, according to Rebbi Meir, if the owner said 'Harei Zu Temuras Olah u'Shelamim'.
Why might Rebbi Meir concede to Rebbi Yossi in such a case?

(b) What do we ask further, on the assumption that he does not?

(c) On what grounds might the animal be an Olah according to Rebbi Meir, even in this case?

(d) According to Abaye, Rebbi Meir will agree by 'Lachtzos'.
What does Rava say?

(a) What does Rava ask on Abaye from Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah?

(b) What does that have to do with Rebbi Meir in Temurah?

(c) Abaye answers with the principle 'Yeshnah li'Shechitah mi'Techilah ad Sof'.
How does this answer the Kashya? How did he then Shecht the two Simanim?

(d) Can Pigul take effect with a Machshavah on half the Matir (i.e. one Si'man)?

(a) We query Abaye further from the first Perek of Menachos, where Rebbi Yehudah and the Rabbanan repeat the same Machlokes with regard to a Kohen who does the Avodas ha'Minchah with the intention of eating a k'Zayis tomorrow and a k'Zayis outside the Mechitzah.
What does Abaye answer?

(b) Why must the Machlokes then be restricted to the burning (or the Holachah) of the Kometz and not to the actual Avodah of the Kemitzah?

(c) And what did he reply when they asked him from the Kometz of a Minchas Chotei, which does not include Levonah, yet Rebbi Yehudah and the Rabbanan also argue there?

(d) What does Rav Ashi (or Rav Asi) mean when he says that it is possible for them to argue even there, and the Machlokes will then be over 'Pesi'os'?

(a) Rav Shimi bar Ashi learns the She'eilah of 'Lachtzos' like Abaye.
What does Rav Huna bar Nasan say?

(b) When Rav Dimi came, he established Rebbi Meir in the Mishnah in Temurah like Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah.
What did he mean by that? What do they hold in common?

(c) Abaye cited Rabah bar bar Chanah Amar Rebbi Yochanan who said that Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yossi do not argue.
What did he mean?

(d) What was he telling Rav Dimi with that statement?

6)

(a) What does Rebbi Yitzchak bar Yosef say (regarding the Machlokes between Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yossi) about a case where the owner said ...

1. ... 'Tachol Zu va'Achar-Kach Tachol Zu' (meaning that first the one should take effect and then the second)?
2. ... 'Lo Tachol Zu Ela-im-Kein Chalah Zu'?

(b) And they argue in a case where he said 'Harei Zu Temuras Olah, Temuras Shelamim'.
On what basis does ...

1. ... Rebbi Meir then hold 'Harei Zu Temuras Olah'?
2. ... Rebbi Yossi disagree with Rebbi Meir? What error does the owner make?

(c) According to Rabah bar bar Chanah then, what would Rebbi Meir hold in a case of 'Harei Zu Temuras Olah u'Shelamim'? What does this prove?

(d) What did Rav Dimi answer Abaye?

(a) We learned in our Mishnah that the Tana Kama and Rebbi Yehudah argue in a case where the Kohen had in mind to eat 'K'zayis ba'Chutz, k'Zayis le'Machar'. Based on a Safek that he had concerning this point, what did Ula (or Rav Oshaya) ask his Babylonian colleagues to ascertain? What alternative version did he suggest?

(b) If the correct version is the one in our Mishnah, then what will the respective Tana'im hold in the case of 'k'Zayis u'k'Zayis'?

(c) We resolve the She'eilah from a Beraisa.
What did Levi ask Rebbi with regard to 'Chishav Le'echol k'Zayis le'Machar' ba'Chutz?

(d) What did Rebbi reply?

(a) What did Rebbi Shimon, Rebbi's son, comment, based on our Mishnah 'Le'echol ... k'Zayis le'Machar k'Zayis ba'Chutz ...'?

(b) What was Rebbi's reply? How did he overrule his son's objection?

(c) When Rebbi said 'Ledidach de'Asnisach Tarti, Lo Kashya Lach; Ledideih de'Lo Asniseih Ela Chada, Kashya', what did he mean by ...

1. ... 'Tarti'?
2. ... 'Chada'?
3. ... 'Ledidach de'Asnisach Tarti, Lo Kashya Lach'?
4. ... 'Ledideih de'Lo Asniseih Ela Chada, Kashya'?

(a) Then what was Levi's basic Safek?

(b) What would he assume if ...

1. ... his version was the right one?
2. ... Rebbi Shimon's version was the right one?

(c) What is now the difference between the two possibilities?

(d) And how do we know that the case that Rebbi taught Levi was 'k'Zayis le'Machar, k'Zayis ba'Chutz', and the case that he omitted was 'k'Zayis ba'Chutz u'k'Zayis le'Machar', and not vice-versa?

(a) What problem do we have with Levi's She'eilah by 'k'Zayis le'Machar ba'Chutz'?

(b) We solve this problem by establishing that in fact, Levi asked Rebbi one She'eilah incorporating two (Rebbi's reply would automatically answer both She'eilos).
How is that?

(c) Why would this have not have been the case had he asked him the Din by 'k'Zayis u'k'Zayis'?

(d) In that case, even now that he asked him 'k'Zayis u'k'Zayis', why can we not say that if Rebbi would answer him that it is a 'K'lal' ('Eiruv Machshavos Havi' [which he did]), he would still have been forced to ask him what the Din will be in a case of ' ... u'k'Zayis ba'Chutz' (where Rebbi Yehudah might still hold 'Harei Zu Olah')?

(a) What *does* Rebbi hold with regard to 'k'Zayis u'k'Zayis?

(b) What do we say in Kidushin that bears this out?

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