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1)

(a) Who sanctified the floor of the Azarah of the Beis Hamikdash (with two Korbenos Todah and 'Shir shel Pega'im')?

(b) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra "Ve'lakach ha'Kohen"?

(c) From where do we now learn that nothing may interrupt between the Kohen's feet and the floor of the Azarah?

(d) Having taught us that the Kohen may not stand on ...

1. ... vessels (which are 'Miyn be'she'Eino Miyno' [a different material than the Kohen's foot]) whilst performing the Avodah, why does our Mishnah find it necessary to add an animal?
2. ... an animal, why does then he need to add another Kohen's foot?

3)

(a) What does Rebbi Ami say about a Kohen standing on a stone-slab of the Azarah which has come loose and which one ...

1. ... does not intend to fix (i.e. because they have in mind to replace it)?
2. ... intends to fix?

(b) According to Rabah Zuti's version of the She'eilah, the Kohen performed the Avodah on a spot where the stone-slab had been removed.
What is then the She'eilah? What reason do we initially ascribe to Rebbi Ami for thinking that the Avodah might be Pasul?

(c) What prompts us to retract from this explanation and decide that David Hamelech certainly sanctified the floor of the Azarah together with the ground down to the center of the earth?

(d) Then what is the She'eilah? Why might the Avodah be Pasul?

(a) What does the Tana Kama learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra "Ve'Lakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o Ve'nasan al Karnos ha'Mizbe'ach" (from the fact that the Torah places "be'Etzba'o" in between "ve'Lakach" and "Ve'nasan")?

(b) The basis for this Limud is the word "Etzba", which always indicates the right hand, according to the Tana Kama.
What is the source for this?

(c) What does Rebbi Shimon say?

(a) We query Rebbi Shimon in that if he Darshens the Gezeirah-Shavah, then what difference will it make that the Torah does not write "Yad" by Kabalah (seeing as it writes "Etzba").
To which Gezeirah-Shavah does this refer?

(b) And what is then the problem if he doesn't Darshen the 'Gezeirah-Shavah'?

(c) What is the problem with Rav Yehudah's explanation (that Rebbi Shimon does not Darshen the Gezeirah-Shavah, and what he really means is that the Torah does not write 'Yad Yemin' by Kabalah)? Why would that not answer the question?

(d) In any event, Rav Yehudah's statement is incorrect, based on another Beraisa. What does Rebbi Yehudah say there about wherever the Torah writes "Yad" or "Etzba"?

(a) Rava therefore explains that Rebbi Shimon in fact, holds of the Gezeirah-Shavah, and had the Torah written "Yad" instead of "Etzba", he would have agreed with the Tana Kama, and applied "Yad" both to "Ve'lakach" and to "Ve'nasan".
What is the practical problem with applying "*Etzba*" to "Ve'lakach"?

(b) How does Rav Sama b'rei de'Rav Ashi dismiss this problem?

(c) How does Abaye therefore explain the Machlokes?

(d) Does Rebbi Shimon now hold of the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' or not?

7)

(a) Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon holds that where the Torah writes "Etzba" by Kabalah, it requires the Kohen's right-hand, but not by Nesinah.
Which Pasuk is he referring to?

(b) What does he hold with regard to 'Mikra Nidrash ... '?

(c) And how does he Darshen the Pasuk in Tetzaveh (in connection with the Par ha'Milu'im) "Ve'lakachta mi'Dam Ha'Par Ve'nasata al Karnos ha'Mizbe'ach be'Etzba'echa"?

(d) Why is that?

(a) Based on the Pasuk "Ve'lakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o" and the Pasuk in Tazri'a "Ve'taval ha'Kohen es Etzba'o ha'Yemanis", how do we initially interpret Rabah bar bar Chanah Amar Rebbi Yochanan's statement 'Kol Makom she'Ne'emar Etzba u'Kehunah Einah Ela Yemin'?

(b) Based on the Mishnah in Menachos, what is then the problem with Kemitzah, where the Torah only writes "Kehunah" (but not "Etzba") What does the Mishnah in Menachos there say?

(c) How does Rava therefore reinterpret Rebbi Yochanan's ruling?

(a) How does Mar interpret the Pasuk in Vayikra "Ve'hikriv ha'Kohen es ha'Kol Ve'hiktir ha'Mizbeichah"? To which Avodah does this pertain?

(b) If the Kohen carried the head of the Tamid in his right hand to the Mizbe'ach, where did he carry the right hind-leg?

(c) But did Rava not just say that wherever the Torah writes "Kehunah", it requires the right-hand?

(d) Then why does Rebbi Shimon validate Kabalah with the left-hand (where the Torah writes "Ve'hikrivu B'nei Aharon ha'Kohanim"), even though Kabalah is crucial to the Avodah?

(a) If Rebbi Shimon requires both "Kehunah" and "Etzba", how can he then say 'Kol Makom she'Ne'emar Yad, Eino Ela Yemin, Etzba Eino Ela Yemin' (without mentioning "Kehunah")?

(b) If "Etzba" alone will suffice (even according to Rebbi Shimon), why does the Torah then write "Kehunah"?

(c) What problem do we have with the fact that Rebbi Shimon in our Mishnah only permits Kabalah with the left-hand, but says nothing about Zerikah?

(d) How does Abaye answer this Kashya?

(e) But did we not learn earlier that Rebbi Shimon requires the right-hand by the Haza'ah of a Chatas?

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