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Zevachim, 15
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1) A "HOLACHAH RABASI" AND A "HOLACHAH ZUTRASI"
OPINIONS: The Gemara says that the status of a "Holachah she'Lo b'Regel,"
carrying the blood of the Korban towards the Mizbe'ach without walking (but
such as by stretching out the hand) is subject to the argument between Rebbi
Shimon and the Rabanan in the Mishnah (13a). Rebbi Shimon states that a
wrongful thought during the Holachah cannot invalidate a Korban, because
Holachah is not a necessary procedure for the Korban (since the animal could
be slaughtered adjacent to the Mizbe'ach, making Holachah unnecessary). The
Rabanan argue and state that a wrongful thought during the Holachah can
invalidate a Korban. The Gemara elaborates on this and says that both Rebbi
Shimon and the Rabanan agree that a wrongful thought during a "Holachah
Rabasi" (a major Holachah) is problematic. Their argument involves a
"Holachah Zutrasi" (a minor Holachah).
In the Gemara later, Rav Papa and Rav Huna say the opposite: both Rebbi
Shimon and the Rabanan agree that a wrongful thought during a Holachah
Zutrasi is problematic, while they argue about a case of a Holachah Rabasi.
(a) RASHI (DH b'Holachah Rabasi) defines a Holachah Rabasi as any Holachah
that is done with one's feet, while Holachah Zutrasi refers to any Holachah
that is not done with one's feet. The Gemara's first explanation of the
argument between Rebbi Shimon and the Rabanan is that they both agree that
when the Kohen is moving during the Holachah, his thoughts can invalidate
the Korban. Their argument applies only when the Kohen is not moving. The
Rabanan maintain that this is still considered Holachah, and, therefore, the
Kohen's thoughts during the procedure can invalidate the Korban. Rebbi
Shimon maintains that this is not considered an act of Holachah, and,
therefore, the Kohen's thoughts during this time cannot invalidate the
Korban. Rav Papa and Rav Huna do not agree with this explanation, because
Rebbi Shimon in the Mishnah explicitly states that his reasoning is "because
it is possible not to do Holachah." This means that even when the Kohen must
walk a long distance to transport the blood, the Kohen's thoughts during
that act of Holachah cannot invalidate the Korban because it was not
necessary to slaughter the Korban so far from the Mizbe'ach in the first
place. When the Holachah is done while the Kohen remains standing in one
place, and there are no unnecessary steps, even Rebbi Shimon agrees that the
Kohen's thoughts can invalidate the Korban during the Holachah (see Rashi DH
Ela).
The SHITAH MEKUBETZES (Hashmatos #3) questions Rashi's explanation. How is
it possible that the Gemara's initial explanation assumes that Rebbi Shimon
in the Mishnah is referring to a case in which the Kohen is not walking at
all during the Holachah? Rebbi Shimon specifically says that his reasoning
is "because it is possible not to do Holachah." Rebbi Shimon is clearly
referring to a case in which the Kohen is walking! Even though, according to
Rashi, this is the question of Rav Papa and Rav Huna, it is such an obvious
question that it is not reasonable to suggest that the Gemara even
entertained such an explanation in the first place!
(b) The Shitah Mekubetzes explains that a Holachah Rabasi is when the Korban
is slaughtered so far away that it is impossible to do the Zerikah without
coming closer to the Mizbe'ach by walking. A Holachah Zutrasi is when it is
possible to do the Zerikah without coming closer, but the Kohen nevertheless
walks closer to the Mizbe'ach to facilitate the Zerikah. The Gemara
initially assumes that Rebbi Shimon maintains that such a Holachah is not
considered a Holachah because it is unnecessary. The question of Rav Papa
and Rav Huna is that Rebbi Shimon's statement in the Mishnah, "because it is
possible not to do Holachah," implies that the case is when there is a lot
of Holachah which can be avoided. This is why they explain that Rebbi Shimon
argues only in a case of a Holachah Rabasi.
(c) The MISHNEH L'MELECH (Hilchos Pesulei ha'Mukdashin 1:23) records a third
explanation, which involves an entirely different discussion. Both Holachah
Rabasi and Holachah Zutrasi are procedures done without walking. The Gemara
says that the status of a Holachah that is done without walking ("Holachah
she'Lo b'Regel") depends on the argument between Rebbi Shimon and the
Rabanan. Rebbi Shimon, who says that Holachah is not an Avodah, maintains
that the Kohen does not have to move his feet for the Holachah, while the
Rabanan maintain that if the Kohen does not move his feet, then the
Holachah -- which, they maintain, *is* an Avodah -- was not done and is thus
Pasul. The Gemara then says that in a case of Holachah Rabasi, in which the
Kohen needs to walk in order to do the Zerikah, everyone agrees that if the
Kohen does the Zerikah from where he is standing, without walking towards
the Mizbe'ach (that is, without any Holachah), then the Korban is Pasul.
This is because such a distance requires Holachah, and the Holachah was not
done. In a case in which the Kohen is standing at a point from which he is
able to do the Zerikah without walking towards the Mizbe'ach (Holachah
Zutrasi), the Rabanan argue that since he does not need to walk, the
Holachah is valid without him walking, and thus a wrongful thought during
this time can invalidate the Korban. Rebbi Shimon holds that Holachah always
must involve walking, and therefore the Kohen who does not walk has not done
an act of Holachah, invalidating the Korban due to the lack of the Avodah of
Holachah.
The Mishneh l'Melech says, however, that this explanation is not consistent
with the next part of the Gemara. How can Rav Papa and Rav Huna say that it
is clear from the Mishnah that the argument between Rebbi Shimon and the
Rabanan applies in a case of Holachah Rabasi? The Mishnah is obviously
discussing a case in which the Kohen did walk, as Rebbi Shimon says that the
Korban is valid "because it is possible not to do Holachah," implying that
Holachah *was* done. How, then, can we say that the Mishnah is discussing a
case in which the Kohen did not move during the Holachah?
The PANIM ME'IROS, who gives an explanation similar to the one recorded by
the Mishneh l'Melech, explains the question of the Gemara. It is true that
the Mishnah is discussing a case in which the Kohen walked. Rebbi Shimon
says that a wrongful thought does not invalidate the Korban at this point,
because the Holachah was unnecessary. This shows that when the Kohen is not
doing any unnecessary movement (Holachah Zutrasi), Rebbi Shimon would agree
that a wrongful thought invalidates the Korban, even if no movement was
done. This view is shared by the Rabanan, who say that a wrongful thought
during Holachah always invalidates a Korban. Rav Papa and Rav Huna agree
that the case of the Mishnah is one in which the Kohen needed to walk. They
ask that since Rebbi Shimon is referring only to a case in which the Kohen
needed to walk, we see that Rebbi Shimon agrees with the Rabanan in a case
where the Kohen does *not* need to walk (i.e. Holachah Zutrasi) that a
wrongful thought can invalidate the Korban! This clearly shows that the act
is considered Holachah according to everyone. Consequently, the only
possible case in which Rebbi Shimon and the Rabanan argue about whether or
not walking is necessary during Holachah is in the case of the Mishnah -- a
case of Holachah Rabasi. (Y. Montrose)
15b
2) DERIVING THE LAW OF A "ZAR" WHO PERFORMS AN "AVODAH" FROM THE LAW OF A
"BA'AL MUM" WHO PERFORMS AN "AVODAH"
QUESTION: The Gemara discusses the source for the law that a Zar (non-Kohen)
who performs an Avodah of a Korban (such as the Kabalah) invalidates the
Korban. Tana d'Vei Rebbi Yishmael derives the source from a Kal v'Chomer. If
the Avodah of a Kohen who is a Ba'al Mum is Pasul, even though he is
permitted to eat the meat of Korbanos, then certainly the Avodah of a Zar --
who is not permitted to eat the meat of Korbanos -- is Pasul.
TOSFOS REBBI AKIVA EIGER (Mishnayos, #13) asks why the Gemara does not ask a
serious question on this teaching. We know that a Chalal, the child of a
union between a Kohen and a divorcee, is not permitted to eat the meat of
Korbanos, but nevertheless the Avodah that he performs is, b'Di'eved, valid!
This clearly shows that the Kal v'Chomer of d'Vei Rebbi Yishmael is a
fallacy! Instead of learning from a Ba'al Mum that a Zar's Avodah is Pasul,
we can learn from a Chalal that a Zar's Avodah is valid!
In fact, we find that TOSFOS in Ta'anis (17b DH Davar) uses this very
argument. Tosfos asks why we do not learn that a Kohen who is an Arel cannot
perform the Avodah from the law of a Ba'al Mum. If a Ba'al Mum, who is
permitted to eat Korbanos, invalidates the Korban if he does the Avodah,
then certainly an Arel -- who is not permitted to eat Korbanos --
invalidates the Korban if he does the Avodah! Tosfos answers that we cannot
learn the law of an Arel from the law of a Ba'al Mum, because we find that a
*Chalal* cannot eat Korbanos and yet his Avodah is not invalid. Why, then,
does our Gemara not use the law of a Chalal to refute the Kal v'Chomer of
d'Vei Rebbi Yishmael?
ANSWERS:
(a) The SHA'AR HA'MELECH (Hilchos Bi'as Mikdash 6:10) quotes the SHITAH
MEKUBETZES in Sanhedrin (22b) who writes an answer to this question in the
name of the grandson of the RASH MI'SHANTZ. There is an characteristic of a
Chalal which makes it impossible to derive the law of a Zar from that of a
Chalal. A Chalal is a descendant of Aharon. By virtue of his ancestry, he
does not invalidate a Korban when he performs the Avodah. According to this,
it is obvious why we cannot derive the law of a Zar from that of a Chalal; a
Chalal's Avodah is valid because he is descended from Aharon, while a Zar is
not. Therefore, we can derive the law of a Zar only from a Ba'al Mum.
The Sha'ar ha'Melech is not satisfied with this answer. Although it explains
why we do not learn the law of a Zar from the law of a Chalal, and why
Tosfos in Ta'anis does learn the law of a Kohen who is an Arel from the law
of a Chalal, it does not explain the teaching of d'Vei Rebbi Yishmael later
(16a-b), where he derives the law of a Kohen who is an Onen from the law of
a Ba'al Mum. Tana d'Vei Rebbi Yishmael teaches that if the Avodah of a Kohen
who is a Ba'al Mum is Pasul, even though he is permitted to eat the meat of
Korbanos, then certainly the Avodah of an Onen -- who is not permitted to
eat the meat of Korbanos -- is Pasul! Why does the Gemara there not point
out the fallacy of learning the law of an Onen from the law of a Ba'al Mum?
We should instead derive from the law of a *Chalal* that an Onen's Avodah is
valid! The answer of the Shitah Mekubetzes does not apply here, since both
an Onen and a Chalal are descendants of Aharon!
(b) In a preface to his answer, the KEHILOS YAKOV (#14) suggests that Tosfos
in Ta'anis maintains that in contrast to the laws of an Onen and a Zar,
there is no Isur of a Lo Sa'aseh against a Chalal doing the Avodah. The only
reason a Chalal may not do the Avodah is because he is not considered a
fully qualified Kohen. By doing the Avodah, he is negating the positive
commandment that only fully qualified Kohanim should do the Avodah. Tosfos
in Ta'anis explains that we cannot learn the law of an Arel from the law of
a Ba'al Mum, because an Arel can be learned from a Chalal. The logic of
Tosfos is that since both the Arel and the Chalal are descendants of Aharon
and are not called Zarim, we can learn Arel from Chalal and say that an
Arel's Avodah does not invalidate a Korban. However, a Zar and an Onen are
different. The law of a Zar obviously is more stringent, since he has an
Isur Lo Sa'aseh not to perform Avodah -- "v'Zar Lo Yikrav Aleichem"
(Bamidbar 18:4). An Onen also has a specific prohibition against doing the
Avodah. This is why the Gemara does not refute d'Vei Rebbi Yishmael's
teachings for Zar and Onen. Since those cases are more stringent than the
case of a Chalal (because they have specific verses which prohibit their
doing Avodah), there is no grounds to compare them to a Chalal instead of to
a Ba'al Mum. (Y. Montrose)
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