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1)

(a) From where do we learn that an Eved does not invalidate his grandmother who is a bas Kohen who married a Yisrael, from eating Terumah if her husband died?

(b) What do we learn from the Pasuk "ve'Zera *Ein Lah*"?

(c) From where do we know that a grandchild invalidates and feeds?

(a) Resh Lakish asked Rebbi Yochanan whether the author of our Mishnah (which declares the son of an Akum ve'Eved ha'Ba al bas Yisrael a Mamzer) has to be Rebbi Akiva.
Why specifically Rebbi Akiva?

(b) What did Rebbi Yochanan reply?

(c) The Beraisa cites the words of the frustrated grandmother who blessed her son, whom she referred to as 'Kuza', but who cursed her grandson, whom she called 'Kada'.
What do those two titles mean?

3)

(a) Are the wives of Areilim and other Temei'im permitted to eat Terumah?

(b) Then why are the wives of a P'tzu'a Daka and a K'rus Shafchah forbidden?

(c) Under what circumstances may the latter eat Terumah?

(a) Is someone whose one Beitzah is crushed considered a P'tzu'a Daka?

(b) Under which circumstances is a K'rus Shafchah not considered a P'sul Kahal?

(a) Rebbi Eliezer learns that an Areil is forbidden to eat Terumah from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Toshav ve'Sachir" (Emor) "Toshav ve'Sachir" from Pesach (in Bo). From where does Rebbi Akiva learn it?

(b) From where do we know that the Pasuk of "Ish Ish" (which concludes "u'Va ha'Shemesh va'Taher ve'Achar Yochal min ha'Kodshim") refers to Terumah?

(c) Why would Rebbi Eliezer not be able to learn his 'Gezeirah-Shavah' were it not 'Mufneh' (superfluous)? What Chumra does Pesach have over Terumah?

(a) With regard to Terumah, "Toshav" implies an Eved that is Kanuy Kinyan Olam (until the Yoval), and "Sachir", one that is Kanuy Kinyan Shanim (for six years).
Did the Torah really need to tell us that both a Kanuy Kinyan Olam and a Kanuy Kinyan Shanim are not permitted to eat Terumah?

(b) Then why did the Torah find it necessary to write "Sachir" as well as "Toshav"? Why did it not just write "Toshav"?

7)

(a) How do we know that "Toshav" and "Sachir" by Pesach cannot possibly refer to a Kanuy Kinyan Olam and a Kanuy Kinyan Shanim (as it does by Terumah)?

(b) How do we reconcile this with Rebbi Eliezer himself, who says that a 'Gezeirah-Shavah' that is Mufneh on only one side, can nevertheless be refuted by a Kashya?

(a) What does Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Chanina learn from "ve'*Chol Zar* Lo Yochal Kodesh"?

(b) Why is this D'rashah necessary? What would we otherwise have said?

(c) From where do we know that an Onan is forbidden to eat the Pesach?

(d) And on what grounds do we preclude an Onan from "ve'*Chol Zar* ... ", and include an Areil from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' (and not vice-versa)?

(a) Milah is more stringent than Aninus (in *four* respects): because it is lacking an act on one's body and because one is Chayav Kareis.
What are the other two?

(b) Aninus is more stringent (in *three*): because it can occur many times in a person's life and because it pertains to women as well as to men.
What is the third stringency?

(c) Rav maintains that, even if the Pesach would not have more stringencies, we would not learn Terumah from Pesach with regard to Aninus (rather than Orlah).

Why not?

(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Bo "u'Malta Oso, Oz Yochal *Bo*"?

(b) Why is this D'rashah necessary? What would we otherwise have said?

(c) Then why can we not also Darshen "Kol Areil Lo Yochal *Bo*", to permit an *Areil* to eat Terumah?

(d) We prefer to *preclude* Milas Zecharav va'Avadav from the prohibition of eating Terumah from "u'Malta Oso, Oz Yochal *Bo*", and to *include* that of an Areil from the 'Ge'zeirah-Shavah', because the latter has more stringencies. Others say that, even if it did not, we would not switch them (to forbid Milas Zecharav va'Avadav to eat Terumah, and to permit an Areil). Why not?

1. ... two ways is Arlus more stringent than Milas Zecharav va'Avadav?
2. ... way is Milas Zecharav va'Avadav more stringent than Arlus?

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