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1)

(a) Why does Rebbi Shimon, who exempts the sister of a Zekukah from Yibum altogether, require the sister who is an Isur Mitzvah to one of the brothers, to receive Chalitzah from the other brother?

(b) And why does her sister require Chalitzah? Let her be exempt because she is Achos Zekukah?

(c) Why is it then, that we do not make a similar decree by Isur Ervah (to require Chalitzah from the Ervah because of the Tzarah)?

(a) Our Mishnah cites a case of Reuven and Shimon who married two sisters, Reuven died and Levi, who is un-married, made Ma'amar with the Yevamah. According to Beis Shamai, should Shimon die, Levi remains with the Ba'alas Ma'amar, and the sister is free to marry le'Shuk.
Why is that?

(b) What do Beis Hillel say?

(c) What do Beis Hillel say about these two unfortunate women?

(a) With regard to the last case, Beis Hillel said 'Zu Hi she'Amru ... ', which comes to preclude a similar statement made by Rebbi Yehoshua in Perek Beis Shamai.
Which case is Rebbi Yehoshua referring to?

(b) The Tana of our Mishnah holds either like Raban Gamliel or Rebbi Eliezer.
What is the opinion of ...

1. ... Raban Gamliel?
2. ... Rebbi Yehoshua?

(c) Rebbi Elazar explains that, in the opinion of Beis Shamai, Ma'amar does not effect a complete Kinyan.
According to him, in which regard ...

1. ... is it Koneh?
2. ... is it not Koneh?

4)

(a) How does Rebbi Avin attempt to prove from the Mishnah at the beginning of the Perek 'Beis Shamai Omrim Yekaymu' that Ma'amar is not completely Koneh?

(b) How will Rebbi Avin counter that proof? What will be the problem even if we were to say that it was not?

(c) So how do we resolve the Mishnah at the beginning of the Perek?

(a) According to Rav Ashi too, Beis Shamai, in the opinion of Rebbi Elazar, holds that Ma'amar is not completely Koneh.
How does he quote Rebbi Elazar?

(b) We bring the same proof as we brought earlier from Beis Shamai's 'Yekaymu' at the beginning of the Perek.
How do we reconcile Beis Shamai's statement here ('Ishto Imo, ve'Halezu Teitzei Mishum Achos Ishah' - from which we can infer not like Rebbi Avin) with Beis Shamai's statement 'Yekaymu' (implying but not Lechatchilah)?

(a) Rabah asks whether Ma'amar creates marriage or betrothal.
How does Abaye prove that the ramifications of this She'eilah cannot be regarding inheritance, burial and the annulment of vows?

(b) If a man betroths a woman and either of them dies, does ...

1. ... he become an Onan if she dies? What are the ramifications of Aninus?
2. ... she receive her Kesubah if he dies?

(c) If 'Lo Mitamei Lah' means that, if he is a Kohen, he is not *permitted* to bury her (see Tosfos DH 'Lo'), how might we explain 'Lo Mitam'ah Lo' (seeing as even a Bas Kohen is not prohibited from becoming Tamei Meis)?

(d) If the above are not the ramifications of the She'eilah, then what are?

(a) How does Rabah counter Abaye's Kashya that, if without Ma'amar, the Torah writes "Yevamah Yavo Alehah" - 'Afilu Ba'al Korchah', how much more so, with it (and Chupah should not be necessary)?

(b) We learned in a Beraisa in Nedarim 'Shomeres Yavam, Bein Yavam Echad, Bein Sh'nei Yevamin, Rebbi Eliezer Omer, Yafer'; Rebbi Yehoshua Omer, le'Echad ve'Lo li'Sh'nayim; Rebbi Akiva Omer, Lo le'Echad ve'Lo li'Sh'nayim.'
What is the reason of ...

1. ... Rebbi Akiva'?
2. ... Rebbi Yehoshua'?

(c) Why does Rebbi Eliezer (who holds 'Yesh Zikah, va'Afilu li'Sh'nayim') say 'Yafer' (in the singular)?

(d) How does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak reject the proof from here that Ma'amar makes Nisu'in, because otherwise, the Yavam could not negate the Yevamah's Nedarim without the father negating them, too?

(a) According to Rebbi Elazar, who holds in Perek Beis Shamai, that Ma'amar acquires only with regard to rejecting the Tzarah, but not with regard to exempting the Yevamah from Chalitzah, why can the Yavam nullify the Yevamah's Nedarim at all (even in conjunction with the father)?

(b) Alternatively, Rebbi Elazar counters that, even if Beis Shamai holds that Ma'amar is completely Koneh, Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak should not have explained Rebbi Eliezer by saying sthat the Yavam can nullify the Yevamah's Nedarim in conjunction with her father.
Why not?

(c) So how does Rebbi Elazar explain Rebbi Eliezer? Under which circumstances does the Yavam nullify the Yevamah's Nedarim?

(d) Does this speak with Ma'amar or without it?

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