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1)

(a) According to Shmuel, if the Yavam performed Chalitzah with the two sisters, the Tzaros will still require Chalitzah.
What will be the Din, if two women fall to Yibum from the same husband, and the Yavam gave one of them a Get or made Ma'amar with one of them, will the Tzarah be free to marry with the Chalitzah of the Ba'alas ha'Get or of the Ba'alas Ma'amar?

(b) We learned earlier that, according to Shmuel, if the Yavam performed Chalitzah with the sisters, the Tzaros still require Chalitzah, whereas, the sisters are free to marry le'Shuk with the Chalitzah of the Tzaros.
Why is that? Why are the sisters Yotze with the Chalitzah of the Tzaros, considering that the latter are Tzaros Achos Ishah be'Zikah?

(c) But doesn't Shmuel hold 'Yesh Zikah' (as we saw above on 18b.)?

(d) If Shmuel is speaking according to those who hold 'Ein Zikah', then why does he say 'Chalatz le'Achyos, Lo Nifteru *Tzaros'*? Why should the Tzarah of the first sister not be Yotze with the Chalitzah of the sister, seeing as it was a flawless Chalitzah (because at that stage, he could have performed Yibum with her)? What does he then mean by 'Tzaros'?

(a) According to what we just learned, when Shmuel says 'Chalatz le'Tzaros, Nifteru Achyos', he is referring exclusively to the Chalitzah of the second sister's Tzarah.
Why can that statement not be correct?

(b) So how do we amend Shmuel's statement to read (instead of 'Chalatz le'Achyos ... ')?

(c) Why, if the Yavam began by making Chalitzah with the Tzarah of the first sister, may he then go on to make Chalitzah with the second sister, even to the point of permitting her Tzarah to marry le'Shuk?

(a) Rav Ashi simplifies Shmuel, taking him literally and according to his own opinion (of 'Yesh Zikah'). How does he dispense with our initial Kashya? Why are the sisters free to marry le'Shuk with the Chalitzah of the Tzaros, considering that Tzaros are Tzaros Achos Ishah be'Zikah?

(b) We try to substantiate Rav Ashi's explanation by quoting a Beraisa which teaches, by implication, that if the Yavam performed Chalitzah with the Tzaros, the sisters are free to marry le'Shuk.
How do we reject this proof? If the Tana's reason is not because the Zikah is not strong enough to render the Tzarah like an Ervah, then what is?

(c) Then why did the Tana permit only Chalitzah and not Yibum?

(d) But did we not learn above, that Rebbi Yochanan ben Nuri's plans did not materialize?

4) What are the consequences of a Yavam giving a Get to his Yevamah?

5)

(a) We ask, according to Shmuel, what the Din will be if the Yavam gave a Get to one of his two Yevamos, and made Ma'amar with the other one.
Why might it be preferable to perform Chalitzah with ...

1. ... the Ba'alas ha'Get?
2. ... the Ba'alas Ma'amar?

(b) Raban Gamliel says in Perek Raban Gamliel 'Ein Get Achar Get'.
What does this mean?

(c) What does he say about Ma'amar after a Get and Get after Ma'amar? What effect does Ma'amar have?

(d) How does Rav Ashi resolve our She'eilah from here?

(a) What does Rav Huna Amar Rav say about two sisters who fell to Yibum and one of them died? May he perform Yibum with ...

1. ... the second one, if the first one died?
2. ... the first one, if the second one died?

(b) With which ruling of Rav does Rebbi Yochanan disagree? What is his reason?

(c) How do we reconcile Rav's lenient ruling in this case with his own statement, agreeing with Rebbi Yochanan's principle?

(a) What is the problem with Rebbi Yochanan's ruling from our Mishnah, which obligates the two remaining brothers to perform Chalitzah with the two sisters who fall to them for Yibum, but not Yibum?

(b) What does Rebbi Yochanan therefore say about our Mishnah?

(c) Why does he not answer that it is only the *second* sister who must make Chalitzah, and that when the Tana says Choltzos, he refers to the general public ('Choltzos de'Alma')?

(d) And why does he not answer that our Mishnah speaks when the one brother had already performed Chalitzah with the first Yevamah?

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