Previous daf

1)

(a) The Torah writes in Kedoshim (with regard to Orlah) "u'Neta'tem Kol Eitz Ma'achal". Seeing as the Pasuk then writes "Lo Ye'acheil", we already know that it refers exclusively to fruit-trees.
Then why does it need to add the word "Eitz *Ma'achal*"?

(b) The Tana of the Beraisa learns from "P'ri Eitz Hadar" - 'Eitz she'Ta'am Atzo u'Piryo Shaveh' (that its bark tastes like its fruit).
How does he know that it is not referring to the peppercorn tree?

(c) Then maybe one ought to take a few peppercorns together with the Lulav?

(a) Rebbi interprets "Hadar" to mean "ha'Dir".
What does this mean?

(b) But don't all fruit-trees produce a variety of sizes and qualities of fruit, large and small, good and bad?

(c) How does Rebbi Avahu (who is an Amora - and doesn't belong in a Beraisa) explain the word "ha'Dar"?

(d) Ben Azai has a third interpretation of "Hadar" (based on a Greek word).
What is it?

(a) Rebbi Chiya (bar Avin) and Rav Asi argue as to why one cannot be Yotze with an Esrog of Orlah: one says because it cannot be eaten. What does the other one say?

(b) If the sole criterion is that the Esrog should have a Din Mamon, then why does our Mishnah invalidate an Esrog of Terumah Temei'ah, which the Kohen can use as fuel?

(c) According to one opinion, then, the Esrog needs to have a Din Mamon, even if it is edible. Which Esrog does this preclude?

(d) How will he then explain our Mishnah, which validates an Esrog of Ma'aser Sheini in Yerushalayim?

(a) The Gemara cites one of the two Amora'im in the previous Machlokes who specifically requires the Esrog to have a Din Mamon (too).
Which one is it?

(b) According to Rav Asi, what does Rebbi Meir learn from ...

1. ... "Lachem" (by Lulav)?
2. ... "Arisoseichem" (by the Mitzvah of Chalah)?

(c) In which other area does Rebbi Meir require ownership in order to be Yotze (according to Rav Asi)?

(d) According to Rav Asi, what does Rebbi Meir learn from the 'Gezeirah- Shavah' "Lechem" "Lechem" from the Mitzvah of Chalah?

5) In a Beraisa, Rebbi Meir specifically exempts a dough of Ma'aser Sheini from Chalah.
Why might he not necessarily hold the same by an Esrog of Ma'aser Sheini (in spite of Rav Asi)?

6)

(a) Our Mishnah forbids using an Esrog of Tahor Terumah Lechatchilah. Rav Ami and Rav Asi argue over the reason: one says because one renders it 'Muchshar Lekabeil Tum'ah'.
How?

(b) What does the other one say?

(c) What is the difference between the two opinions?

(a) If a Kohen did use an Esrog of Terumah Tehorah, he is Yotze.
Why is that?

(b) Can Terumah Tehorah be redeemed?

(c) Then why is a Yisrael also Yotze, if he used it?

(a) Why does Beis Hillel permit an Esrog of Demai?

(b) What do Beis Shamai say?

(c) They also dispute whether one may feed Achsanya Demai.
What is 'Achsanya'?

(d) Why were Chazal so lenient with regard to Demai?

1. ... according to Rebbi Chiya bar Avin (who requires only a Heter Achilah)?
2. ... according to Rav Asi (who also in addition, a Din Mamon)?

(a) Rav Chisda quoting Rabeinu ha'Gadol, restricts the Pesul of spots on an Esrog, to when they only appear in one location, but not if they are in two or three places.
What problem does Rava have with that?

(b) So we switch Rav Chisda's statement to the Seifa of the Mishnah.
What does Rav Chisda now say?

(c) Which other stringency does Rava introduce in this regard?

(a) Rav Yitzchak ben Elazar quotes a Beraisa, which exchanges 'Nitlah Pitmaso' for 'Nitlah Buchnaso'.
Why does the Tana call a Pitum, a 'Buchna'?

(b) Which interpretation of 'Nitlah Buchnaso' does Rashi dismiss?

(a) Rava declares an Esrog that has been peeled like a red date, Kasher. Why does he refer to a peeled Esrog as a *red* date?

(b) How does he reconcile his ruling with our Mishnah, which *invalidates a peeled Esrog*?