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1)

(a) Why is one permitted to Daven in any language?

(b) What did Rebbi Yochanan say about Davening in Aramaic?

(c) What does Rav Yehudah extrapolate from Rebbi Yochanan's statement?

(d) How do we reconcile this with our Mishnah, which permits Davening in any language?

(a) Yochanan Kohen Gadol heard a Bas-Kol (in Aramaic) announcing that the youngsters had been victorious.
When did he hear it?

(b) To which youngsters was the Bas-Kol referring?

(c) What did Shimon ha'Tzadik hear a Bas-Kol in the Kodesh Kodshim say on Yom Kipur, concerning the Greek king Gaskalgas and his decrees?

(d) This seems to clash with what we just said (that the angels do not understand Aramaic). We answer this in two ways; one of them, by differentiating between angels and a Bas-Kol.
What is the other?

(a) From where do we know that Birchas ha'Mazon may be recited in any language?

(b) What do we learn from ...

1. ... the Pasuk in Tzav "ve'Nefesh Ki Secheta, *Ve'sham'ah* Kol Alah" (rather than "Ve'hishbi'a Kol Alah")?
2. ... the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Secheta" "Secheta"?

(c) What do we learn from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' ...

1. ... "Moshe Yedaber ve'ha'Elokim Ya'anenu *be'Kol*" and "*Kol Ram"?
2. ... "Ve'anu ha'Levi'im ... " and "*Ve'anisa* Ve'amarta (in connection with Bikurim)"?

(a) Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah learns that Chalitzah must be said in Lashon ha'Kodesh from the word "*Kachah* Ye'aseh la'Ish" (and "Kachah" always implies that one may not deviate in any way from the Torah's specific instructions).
What do the Rabbanan learn from "Kachah"?

(b) And how do they respond to Rebbi Yehudah, who makes two D'rashos our of the word ("Kachah" ["Koh", "Kachah"])?

(c) According to Rebbi Yeudah, why does the Torah write "Ve'ansah Ve'amrah" by Chalitzah?

(d) Why can he not learn that from "Kol" "Kol" (like the Rabbanan)?

5) To substantiate what we just said, we quote a Beraisa, where Rebbi Yehudah learns from "Kachah" and "Aniyah va'Amirah" that Chalitzah and the B'rachos and the K'lalos must be said in Lashon ha'Kodesh.
What does he learn from the Pasuk in Naso "*Koh* Sevarchu"?

6)

(a) The Torah in Re'ei describes the location of Har Gerizim and Har Eival as "Acharei Derech Mevo ha'Shemesh".
How does Rebbi Yehudah in a Beraisa, interpret ...

1. ... "Derech Mevo ha'Shemesh"?
2. ... "Acharei"?

(b) Much later, the Kutim lived there.
Who were the Kutim?

(c) Based on the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Elonei Moreh" "Elonei Moreh", how did Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Yossi prove the Kutim wrong?

(d) Rebbi Elazar disagrees with Rebbi Yehudah.
How does he interpret the Pasuk in Re'ei ...

1. ... "Ve'hayah be'Ovrechem es ha'Yarden"?
2. ... "Acharei Derech Mevo ha'Shemesh"?

(a) What problem do we have with the Pasuk ...

1. ... "be'Eretz ha'Cena'ani"?
2. ... "ha'Yoshev ba'Aravah"?
3. ... "Mul ha'Gilgal"?

(b) Rebbi Eliezer ben Ya'akov therefore Darshens the Pasuk out of context. He explains the word "Derech" to mean that Hashem was issuing them with instructions now, that, when they returned to Eretz Yisrael from Bavel, they should take their cue from the way they were about to enter the Land now and enter it via trodden paths, and not through fields and vineyards. How does he explain ...

1. ... "ha'Yoshev"?
2. ... "ba'Aravah"?

(c) Why did Hashem need to tell them all this at that time?

(a) Which procedure changed when Yisrael entered Eretz Yisrael as regards ...

1. ... the way the Aron traveled?
2. ... who carried the Aron?

(b) On which two other occasions did the Kohanim carry the Aron?

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