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REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI

prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Shevuos 6

SHEVUOS 6-10 - Ari Kornfeld has generously sponsored the Dafyomi publications for these Dafim for the benefit of Klal Yisrael.

1)

(a) Why is Rebbi Akiva's son Rebbi Yehoshua, known as Rebbi Yehoshua ben Korchah?

(b) What did Rebbi Yehoshua mean when he asked his father why the Mishnah reads 'Mar'os Nega'im Shenayim she'Hein Arba ... '?
What should the Mishnah have said?

(c) What did Rebbi Akiva reply ...

  1. ... to the above question?
  2. ... when Rebbi Yehoshua pressed him further, why the Tana does not then say 'mi'Kerum Beitzah u'Lema'alah Tamei u'Mitztarfin Zeh im Zeh'?
2)
(a) What do we initially extrapolate from the fact that Rebbi Yehoshua only mentioned 'mi'Kerum Beitzah u'Lema'alah, and not 'mi'Sid ha'Heichal u'Lema'alah' as well (to conform with the Tana of the Mishnah in Nega'im)?

(b) Why, according to the current interpretation (of Rebbi Yehoshua ben Korchah and Rebbi Akiva), does Baheres combine with white like lamb's wool, but not with white like the membrane of an egg?

(c) On what grounds do we refute this interpretation of Rebbi Yehoshua ben Korchah's query?

3)
(a) So we try to prove that Rebbi Akiva holds 'Zu Lema'alah mi'Zu' from an analogy given by Rebbi Chanina in a Beraisa.
What comparison does Rebbi Chanina in a Beraisa draw between Rebbi Akiva's opinion and four cups of milk?

(b) How does Rebbi Chanina conclude that suggests that Rebbi Akiva holds 'Zu le'Ma'alah mi'Zu'?

(c) How do we refute this proof too? To which specific case of Tzara'as does Rebbi Chanina refer?

(d) We just concluded that Rebbi Akiva certainly holds 'Zu Lema'alah mi'Zu' (in which case, 'ke'Tzemer Lavan' will come after 'ka'Sheleg' with regard to combining).
How will we reconcile this with Rebbi Akiva in the Seifa of the Mishnah in Nega'im (in connection with 'Pasuch' [a mixture of red and white) 'Adamdam she'ba'Zeh ve'she'ba'Zeh ... Ela shel Baheres Azah, ve'shel Sid Diyhah Mimenu'?

Answers to questions

6b---------------------------------------6b

4)

(a) What does Abaye learn from the Pasuk in Tazri'a "ve'Im Baheres Levanah Hi"?

(b) How does the Beraisa interpret the Pasuk there (in connection with a Baheres) "u'Mar'ehah Amok min ha'Or"?

(c) And what does the Tana prove from the Pasuk in Yeshayah "Al Kol he'Harim ha'Ramim ve'Al Kol ha'Gevahos *ha'Nisa'os*"?

(d) What does "Sapachas" mean?

5)
(a) What does Rebbi Zeira learn from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Levanah" (by Baheres) from "Levanah" (by Se'eis)?

(b) How does another Beraisa learn the same thing from the placing of "Sapachas"?

6)
(a) How does Rav Bibi Amar Rav Asi explain 'white like clean wool'?

(b) What makes the wool so white on that day?

(c) What would someone who wished to produce 'Milas' (a high-quality wool) do with it?

7)
(a) Like Rebbi Chanina drew an analogy to explain the order according to Rebbi Akiva, so too, does he draw an analogy to explain the order according to the Rabbanan.
On what grounds do we refute the initial version ' ... Malko shel Zeh le'Ma'alah le'Malko shel Zeh, ve'Iparcheih shel Zeh Lema'alah me'Iparcheih shel Zeh'?

(b) So what did Rebbi Chanina really say?

(c) Rav Ada bar Aba gives the analogy of 'Malka, Alkafta (a vassal king), Rufila (a general) and Resh Galusa.
In what formation would ...

  1. ... all four walk if they went somewhere together?
  2. ... they probably walk if they were divided in two groups?
8)
(a) Rava gave the analogy (of the two sets of Av/ Toldah) as Shavur Malka (king of Persia) and the Emperor of Rome.
How did he react when Rav Papa asked him which of the two was the senior?

(b) Why did Rav Papa not realize this himself?

(c) Why indeed, did Rava give Shavur Malka precedence?

(d) What does Rava prove from the Pasuk in Daniel "Va'tochal Kol Ar'a, u'Sedushineih Ve'sadkineih"? How does Rebbi Yochanan interpret it?

9) What does Ravina mean when he gives the analogy of a new and an old woolen garment, and a new and an old linen one?

10)

(a) From where does the Beraisa learn that, when the Pasuk in Vayikra obligates a Korban Oleh ve'Yored for Tum'ah, it is ...
  1. ... referring to Tum'as Mikdash ve'Kadashav?
  2. ... not referring to Terumah (which also carries with it an Azharah)?
(b) How do we know that the Pasuk in Emor "be'Kodshim Lo Yochal" pertains to Terumah and not to regular Kodshim?

(c) What problem does the fact that 'Shemi'as Kol' and 'Bituy Sefasayim' are Chayav Korban Oleh ve'Yored, even though they are not Chayav Misah create?

(d) How does this tally with the aforementioned principle (that a Korban generally comes to atone for a Shogeg of Misah or of Kareis)?

Answers to questions

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