Previous daf

1)

(a) Since, according to Munbaz, even someone who knows that he is sinning has to bring a Chatas, what makes him a Shogeg?

(b) What do the Rabbanan (Rebbi Akiva) say about this?

(a) According to the Rabbanan, does one bring a Korban if he was a Shogeg on the Kares (although he was a Meizid on the La'av), or must he also be a Shogeg on the La'av as well (Machlokes Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish)?

(b) What does Resh Lakish learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra: "Asher Lo Se'asena ve'Ashem" - written in connection with a Korban Chatas?

(c) What does Rebbi Yochanan do with that Pasuk?

(a) Why does the Tana (in the Mishnah quoted later in the Perek) find it necessary to state that 'Avos Melachos Arba'im Chaser Achas', seeing as all of the thirty-nine Melachos are listed there anyway?

(b) Are we speaking about 'Zadon Shabbos ve'Shigegas Melachos' or 'Shigegas Shabbos ve'Zadon Melachos'?

(c) According to Rebbi Yochanan, 'Zadon Shabbos' means that he knew about the La'av, but not about the Chiyuv Kares.
How does Resh Lakish (who requires one to be Shogeg even on the La'av) explain 'Zadon Shabbos'?

(d) Who is the author of the Beraisa, which says '... O she'Amar, Yodei'a Ani she'Melachah Zu Asurah, Aval Eini Yodei'a she'Chayavin Aleha Korban O Lo, Chayav'?

(a) To whom is Abaye referring when he says '*ha'Kol* Modim bi'Shevu'as Bituy, she'Ein Chayavin Aleha Korban ad she'Yishgag be'La'av she'Bah'?

(b) How do we know that he is not referring to Munbaz?

(c) What is the Chidush of Abaye? Is it not obvious that (according to Rebbi Yochanan) when there is no Kares , Shagag be'La'av will suffice?

(d) What does Abaye do with the Beraisa, which explicitly writes that someone who makes a Shevu'as Bituy in the past, is termed a Shogeg, if he says that he knew about the Laa'v but was a Shogeg in the Korban?

5)

(a) The Beraisa asks 'Eizehu Shigegas Shevu'as Bituy le'she'Avar'?
What is the problem with a 'Shigegas Shevu'as Bituy le'she'Avar' that does not exist by a 'Shigegas Shevu'as Bituy le'Haba'?

(b) According to the Rabbanan, how will one ever be Chayav Korban for a Shevu'as Bituy in the past?

(c) According to the second Lashon - the one in parentheses - the Gemara concludes that the author of the latter Beraisa (which holds that Shevu'as Bituy le'she'Avar is Chayav by Shigegas Korban), must be the Rabbanan, and not Munbaz), disproves Abaye conclusively.
Why is that Lashon placed in parentheses? What is wrong with it?

(a) According to Abaye, Rebbi Yochanan will agree that by Terumah (which carries a Chiyuv Misah bi'Yedei Shamayim, but not Kares), one is only Chayav to pay the extra fifth, if one is Shogeg on the La'av.
What is the Chidush? What other alternative is there?

(b) What does Rava say about this?

(a) What are the two possible ways that (the Gemara initially thinks that) someone who loses track of the days of the week, might nevertheless be obligated to observe Shabbos?

(b) On what are the two opinions based?

(c) How does the Gemara determine which of the two opinions is correct, from the Beraisa, which reads 'Hayah Mehalech ba'Derech ... Meshamer Yom Echad le'Shishah'?

(a) As far as Melachach is concerned, is there a difference between his Shabbos and the other six days?

(b) Then what *is* the practical difference between them?

(c) And what is wrong with the contention that on his Shabbos, he may not do any Melachah at all, but on the previous day he prepares a double quota of whatever he needs, to survive?

(a) Under what circumstances, would he be permitted to treat one day a week as a regular week-day?

(b) And what leads the Gemara to believe that he may do likewise with the following day?

(c) On what grounds does the Gemara retract from this?

(a) How does the Gemara explain the apparent discrepancy between the use of the singular - in the Pasuk (Shmos 31) "ve'Shamru B'nei Yisrael es *ha'Shabbos"*, and the plural use "ve'es Shabsosai Tishmoru"* the Pasuk (in Shmos 19)?

(b) What is the alternative way of explaining the discrepancy?