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1)

(a) Rebbi Eliezer and Rebbi Yehoshua agree that if someone eats a food which is a Sheni, he becomes a Sheni. They argue however, by someone who eats a Rishon.
Who is the author of the Mishnah in Zavin which says that he is a Sheni.

(b) What is the basic difference between someone who is a Sheni and someone who is a Rishon?

(c) According to Rebbi Eliezer, someone who eats a Shelishi becomes a Shelishi.
What does Rebbi Yehoshua hold?

(d) Which kind of Chulin must the Mishnah be talking about?

(a) Rebbi Yehoshua holds that someone who eats a Shelishi becomes a Sheini for Kodesh.
Why is that?

(b) Why did Chazal decree Tum'ah at all on someone who eats food which is a Rishon or a Sheini and on someone who drinks Tamei beverages?

(c) Why did they need to make *two* decrees, one on food and one on drinks?

(d) Why did Chazal find it necessary to decree at all? What were they trying to safeguard?

(a) Why did Chazal decree Tum'ah on someone who enters a collection of drawn water?

(b) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra "Ach Ma'ayan u'Bor Mikveh Mayim"?

(c) And why was it necessary to decree Tum'ah on someone on whose head and most of him three Lugin of water fell?

(a) What is the reason for Chazal's decreeing Tum'ah ...

1. ... on Sifrei Kodesh?
2. ... on hands?

(b) Why can the reason not be that one may have touched something which is Tamei, thereby rendering one's hands Tamei?

(c) What are the most common ramifications of this latter decree?

(a) What did Rebbi Parnach mean when he said that someone who holds a Seifer-Torah with bare hands will be buried naked?

(b) Which decree came first, hands which became Tamei through a Seifer, or S'tam Yadayim?

6)

(a) How can a Tevul Yom be listed in 'the eighteen things'? Surely a Tevul Yom is d'Oraysa?

(b) 'Food which became Tamei through liquids.'
Why can the liquids mentioned here not be liquid that became Tamei through touching a Sheretz?

(c) Then how *did* they become Tamei, and why did Chazal decree Tum'ah on them?

(d) Why did they decree Tum'ah on liquid (because of liquid which is Tamei d'Oraysa), and not on food which touched S'tam Yadayim (because of food which touched a Sheretz, and which is Tamei d'Oraysa, too)?

(a) Vessels can only receive Tum'ah through an Av ha'Tum'ah, not through a Toldah. 'Vessels which received Tum'ah through liquids'
. Why can the liquids mentioned here not be referring to the liquids of a Zav?

(b) Which liquids then, are Chazal referring to, and why did they decree Tum'ah on them?

(a) Yossi ben Yoezer and Yossi ben Yochanan decreed Tum'ah on the lands of the gentiles, and on glass vessels. Shimon ben Shetach decreed on Kesubah, and Tum'ah on metal vessels. Shamai and Hillel decreed Tum'ah on the hands. (All of these preceded the eighteen decrees of Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel).
Why did Yossi ben Yoezer and Yossi ben Yochanan decree on the lands of the gentiles?

(b) What sort of decree did Shimon ben Shetach issue on the Kesubah?

(c) How many times did Shamai and Hillel themselves argue?

(a) In light of Shamai and Hillel's decree, how can we include Tum'as Yadayim in 'the eighteen things'?

(b) The Gemara attempts to answer this by inserting Shamai and his group (of Talmidim) and Hillel and his group (of Talmidim).
Why is this answer unacceptable?

(c) The Gemara then tries to say that Shamai and Hillel decreed Safek Tum'ah on the hands (i.e. that the Terumah has the Din of Safek Tamei, but is not burnt), and their Talmidim added Vaday Tum'ah, so that the Terumah has to be burnt.
Why is this too, not acceptable?

(a) Which two decrees did Shlomoh Hamelech issue?

(b) In that case, why did Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel need to decree Tum'ah on the hands again?