Previous daf

1)

(a) We just established that Rava bar Rav Chanan's Kashya (why should we not need "Zove'ach" to teach us 'Mechashvin me'Avodah le'Avodah' by Avodah-Zarah) is confined to Resh Lakish, but is not valid according to Rebbi Yochanan.
How does Rav Papa query this by drawing a distinction between an animal and a person?

(b) Bearing in mind that a mountain cannot become Asur be'Hana'ah, will someone who prostrates himself before a mountain receive the death-sentence?

(c) Which Miysah does he receive?

(d) Based on this ruling, how does Rav Acha B'rei de'Rav Ika pose the very opposite Kashya of what Rav Papa asked, on Rava bar Rav Chanan?

(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Re'ei (in connection with Avodah-Zarah) "Eichah Ya'avdu ha'Goyim"?

(b) What Kashya does Rav Acha mi'Difti now ask on Rava bar Chanan (who learns all kinds of Avodah from 'Hishtachavayah')?

(c) Why can we not learn from "Eichah" that someone who does the service of Pe'or before an idol that is normally served in a regular way, is Patur?

(a) What does Rebbi Elazar say about someone who Shechts an animal (Derech Kavod) to Markulis (or to Pe'or), which is normally worshipped Derech Bizayon)?

(b) How can he learn this from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos "ve'Lo Yizbechu Od es Zivcheihem ... ", seeing as this Pasuk is talking about Avodah-Zarah that is worshipped in a regular way?

(c) How do we query this from Rava bar Rav Chanan?

(d) We answer 'Hasam be'Zove'ach le'Hach'is'.
What do we mean by that?

(a) What was Rav Hamnuna doing when Rabah met him one day?

(b) What did Rabah extrapolate from our Mishnah 'ha'Oved Avodas-Kochavim ... '?

(c) Rabah raised an apparent discrepancy, by asking him from the Mishnah later which rules that someone who says to a Meisis 'E'evod, Eilech ve'E'evod, Neilech ve'Na'avod' is Chayav.
What did Rav Hamnuna reply? How did he establish our Mishnah?

(d) Rav Yosef gave a different answer.
What is the gist of his reply?

(a) Rebbi Meir in a Beraisa, rules that someone who says 'Come and worship me', is guilty.
What is he guilty of?

(b) What does Rebbi Yehudah say?

(c) On what grounds does Rebbi Yehudah concede to Rebbi Meir that he is Chayav if they actually worshipped him?

(d) In which case do they argue? What is the basis of their Machlokes?

(a) Rav Yosef retracted however, based on Rebbi Yehudah's ruling in another Beraisa.
What did Rebbi Yehudah say there about someone who says 'E'evod, Eilech ve'E'evod or Neilech ve'Na'avod'?

(b) In which case then, do Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yehudah argue?

(c) What is then the basis of their Machlokes?

7)

(a) And how does Rav Yosef then differentiate between our Mishnah ('ha'Oved', the Reisha), and the Mishnah later ('ha'Omer E'evod ... ', the Seifa)? Why is that?

(b) What reason is there to distinguish between them?

(c) What does Rav Yosef prove from the Pasuk in Re'ei "Lo Soveh Lo ve'Lo Sishma Eilav"?

(a) What distinction does the Beraisa make between a Yachid who is Nisas and a Rabim? In which point is the Torah more stringent by ...

1. ... a Yachid?
2. ... a Rabim?

(b) What does Abaye extrapolate from this Beraisa that refutes Rav Yosef's distinction?

(c) How does *he* therefore distinguish between the Mishnah which obligates Dibur alone and the Mishnah which requires an act?

(d) How does he prove that Dibur alone is sometimes sufficient?

(a) According to Rava, both Mishnos are speaking when the Nisas is talked over by a third party, yet sometimes, the Nisas is Patur with Dibur alone (until he actually worships the idol).
Under which circumstances would that be?

(b) And he derives this from the Pasuk in Re'ei "me'Elohei ha'Amim Asher Sevivoseichem ha'Kerovim O ha'Rechokim".
Why can we not interpret the Pasuk literally?

(c) So how does Rava interpret it?

(a) According to Rav Ashi, the Tana generally requires an act before the Nisas can be sentenced to death.
By whom does he then establish the Seifa, which obligates him with Dibur alone?

(b) Whereas according to Ravina, the Tana is not concerned with a Mumar. How does he then explain the Seifa 'ha'Omer 'E'evod ... '?

(c) According to Abaye, one is Chayav Miysah (be'Meizid, and a Korban be'Shogeg) for worshipping Avodah-Zarah out of love or fear.
What does this mean?

(d) What does Rava say? What is his reason?

(a) How does Abaye attempt to prove his opinion from our Mishnah, 'ha'Oved Avodas-Kochavim, Echad ha'Oved ... '?

(b) Rava refutes this proof by citing Rebbi Yirmiyah.
How did Rebbi Yirmiyah establish our Mishnah?

(a) Abaye makes a second attempt at proving his opinion from another Beraisa.
What does the Tana there extrapolate from the Pasuk in Yisro (in the Aseres ha'Dibros) ...

1. ... "Lo Sishtachaveh *Lahem*"?
2. ... "ve'Lo Sa'avdem"?

(b) How do we know that Haman made himself a god?

(c) How does Rava refute Abaye's proof from here that Avodah-Zarah out of fear is Chayav?

(d) Abaye makes a third attempt at proving his opinion from yet another Beraisa. Rebbi obligates a Kohen Mashi'ach (the Kohen Gadol) who served Avodah-Zarah, to bring a Korban, on the basis of a regular Shigegas Ma'aseh. In which case is he normally obligated to bring his special Korban? Which Korban does he then bring?

(a) Rebbi obligates a Kohen Mashi'ach (the Kohen Gadol) who served Avodah-Zarah, to bring a Korban, on the basis of a regular Shigegas Ma'aseh. What do the Chachamim say?

(b) The Chachamim agree however, that he brings a Se'irah (a she-goat, because the Torah writes in Sh'lach-Lecha [in connection with Avodah-Zarah] "ve'Im Nefesh Achas" [incorporating a Kohen Gadol), and not a bull.
What does Rebbi concede to the Rabbanan (despite the fact that the Nasi brings a Chatas even be'Shigegas Ma'aseh)?

(c) Why is that?

(a) We have a problem ascertaining the case of Shigegas Ma'aseh (by Avodah-Zarah) bearing in mind that there is no He'elam Davar (in which case we assume that he was aware of the Isur of Avodah-Zarah).
Why can it not mean that he prostrated himself before ...

1. ... a Shul?
2. ... the bust of a king, which he accepted as a god ... or ...
3. ... which he did not accept as a god?

(b) How does Abaye therefore establish Shigegas Ma'aseh?

(c) This is Abaye's proof that Ahavah ve'Yir'ah is considered a Shogeg. Seeing as he believes this case to be permitted, why is it not a case of He'elam Davar' (to obligate even a Kohen Gadol, according to the Chachamim)?

(d) Rava refutes Abaye's proof by establishing it by someone who thinks that Avodah-Zarah is completely permitted (and not when he was aware of the Isur, like we thought).
If so, what is the case of He'elam Davar (which even the Rabbanan concede the Kohen Gadol will be Chayav)?

Next daf