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1)

(a) How many days are there in a Tekufah (season)?

(b) According to Rav Yehudah Amar Shmuel, how much of the month of Tishri must belong to the old Tekufah, to justify fixing a leap-year?

(c) According to Rebbi Yehudah, this means that the day of the Tekufah falls on the seventeenth of Tishri (the first day of Chol-ha'Mo'ed).
What does Rebbi Yossi say?

(d) According to Shmuel, both Tana'im learn their respective opinions from the Pasuk in Ki Sisa "ve'Chag ha'Asif Tekufas ha'Shanah".
What does the Pasuk mean according to ...

1. ... Rebbi Yehudah?
2. ... Rebbi Yossi?

(a) We have a She'eilah whether 'Yom Tekufah Maschil' or 'Yom Tekufah Gomer'.
What do these two terms mean?

(b) How do we know that Rebbi Yehudah and Rebbi Yossi must both hold 'Yom Tekufah Maschil', according to Shmuel?

(a) Why do Beis-Din need to declare a leap-year for that reason? Why can they not simply declare Elul a full month instead?

(b) What would be the problem in postponing Rosh Chodesh Tishri if Elul fell on Tuesday, Thursday or Shabbos?

(c) Why do we not at least ask why, if Tishri was destined to fall on Monday, we would not rather postpone it until Tuesday, by being Me'aber Elul, rather than fix a leap-year?

(d) Why do we not then ask why Beis-Din should not then make two extra full months, thereby delaying Rosh Chodesh Tishri by two days?

(a) We query Shmuel however, from a Beraisa where Rebbi Yehudah specifically states 'Yom Tekufah Gomer'.
What does Rebbi Yossi say?

(b) We also ask on Shmuel from another Beraisa, where the Tana Kama echoes Rebbi Yehudah's first opinion. Rebbi Yehudah says 'Sh'tei Yados ba'Chodesh'.
What does he mean by that?

(c) Why does this pose two Kashyos on Shmuel?

(d) What do we conclude?

(a) Rebbi Yossi says 'Me'abrin Shishah-Asar Yom Lifnei ha'Pesach'.
Why is that?

(b) What does he say about 'Shishah-Asar Lifnei ha'Chag'?

(c) Why does he say 'sixteen', when even twenty days will not warrant a leap-year?

(d) Since Rebbi Yehudah too, requires only a little bit of Chol ha'Mo'ed in the new Tekufah, what is now the bone of contention between him and Rebbi Yossi?

6)

(a) Rebbi Shimon says 'Shishah-Asar Lifnei ha'Chag, Me'abrin'.
But is that not what the Tana Kama said? What then, is their dispute?

(b) Which holds which?

(a) The final opinion in the Beraisa is that of Acheirim, who says 'Mi'uto'.
What does he mean by that?

(b) What makes us think that he cannot be referring to the Tekufah of Tishri?

(c) So, based on the Pasuk in Re'ei "Shamor es Chodesh ha'Aviv", how does Rav Shmuel bar Rav Yitzchak interpret Acheirim?

(d) How does he then explain the Pasuk?

(a) Why is Nisan called "Chodesh ha'Aviv"?

(b) What do we ask on Rav Shmuel bar Rav Yitzchak's current explanation?
What other option do we have to avoid fixing a leap-year for this reason?

(c) Rav Acha bar Ya'akov answers that Acheirim reckons from up downwards.
What does he mean by that?

(d) What would we then do about Tishri falling on Sunday, Wednesday or Friday?

(a) Ravina reinstates Acheirim by Tekufas Tishri, like the other Tana'im.
How does he then resolve the problem (that the entire Chag, from the first day of Chol-ha'Mo'ed, does in fact, fall in the new Tekufah)?

(b) How did we interpret "Chag ha'Asif" until now?

(c) Under which circumstances might such work be permitted on Chol ha'Mo'ed?

(d) How does Ravina now reinterpret it according to Acheirim?

(a) What does Rebbi Yehudah (in our Mishnah) learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra (in connection with the Par He'elam Davar) "ve'Samchu Ziknei ha'Eidah al Rosh ha'Par"?
How many Zekeinim does this imply?

(b) What else does he learn from the word "Ziknei"?

(c) Rebbi Shimon requires only three Dayanim.
What does he then learn from "ve'Samchu"?

(a) According to Rebbi Yehudah, the word "ve'Samchu" would be superfluous.
What could the Torah otherwise have written?

(b) And he learns from a 'Gezeirah-Shavah' ("Rosh" "Rosh" from the Korban Olah) that "*al* Rosh ha'Par" means on the head of the bull.
What does Rebbi Shimon say?

(c) And what does Rebbi Shimon do with the 'Gezeirah-Shavah'?

(a) We learned in a Beraisa 'Semichah u'Semichas Zekeinim bi'Sheloshah'.
How does Rebbi Yochanan interpret 'Semichas Zekeinim'?

(b) Abaye cited the Pasuk in Pinchas "va'Yismach es Yadav Alav".
In which connection is this written?

(c) What Kashya does Abaye pose from there on what we just learned?

(d) How do we solve the problem?

(a) Rav Acha B'rei de'Rava asked Rav Ashi whether Semichas Zekeinim means that the judges must actually lean their hands on the candidate.
What did Rav Ashi reply?

(b) How do we reconcile the current ruling with the episode where Rebbi Yehudah ben Bava gave Semichah to Rebbi Meir, Rebbi Yehudah, Rebbi Shimon, Rebbi Yossi and Rebbi Elazar ben Shamua.
Did we not just learn that Semichah requires three judges?

(c) Then why are their names not mentioned?

(d) Rav Ivya adds a sixth person who received Semichah from Rebbi Yehudah ben Bava.
What was his name?

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