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Sanhedrin, 38
1) THE IDENTITY OF ZERUBAVEL AND NECHEMYAH
QUESTIONS: Rebbi Yochanan (end of 37b) states that exile can completely
cleanse a person from punishment. He proves this from Yechanyah. The prophet
Yirmeyahu pronounced that Yechanyah would not have children (Yirmeyahu
22:30), and yet we find in Divrei ha'Yamim I (3:17) that after Yechanyah was
exiled he had children. The Gemara goes on to explain that Yechanyah's son's
name, Shaltiel, alludes to the unusual circumstances of his birth. The
Gemara also interprets the name of another person, Zerubavel, as an allusion
to the fact that he was born in Bavel, while his real name was Nechemyah ben
Chachalyah.
(a) Why does the Gemara discuss Zerubavel? He was not the son of Yechanyah
(whom the Gemara was discussing), but rather a later descendant (Yechanyah's
great-grandson). (See MAHARSHAL here. The SEDER HA'DOROS points out that
although the verse usually refers to Zerubavel as the son of Shaltiel, he
was actually the son of Pedayah and the grandson of Shaltiel. He was called
"Zerubavel ben Shaltiel" because "grandsons are like sons," and perhaps
because the verse wants to link him Shaltiel, a more prestigious personage
that Pedayah.)
(b) How can Zerubavel be identified as Nechemyah? It is clear from verses in
Ezra (2:2) and Nechemyah (7:7) that Zerubavel and Nechemyah were two
different people! (YAD RAMAH)
(c) In addition, if Zerubavel is Nechemyah, then why does the verse
(Nechemyah 1:1) call him the son of Chachalyah? It should call him the son
of Pedayah! (CHAMRA V'CHAYEI)
ANSWERS:
(a) The MAHARSHA addresses the first question by explaining that Zerubavel's
name is significant in understanding that exile serves as atonement for
punishment. The Gemara is explaining why Shaltiel's grandson was named
Zerubavel. Zerubavel's father, Pedayah, realized that had his grandfather,
Yechanyah, not been exiled, he would never have been born. In recognition,
therefore, of the cleansing element of exile, he named his son Zerubavel.
(b) The CHAMRA V'CHAYEI suggests two approaches to this question.
1. The Chamra v'Chayei suggests that when the verse gives a list of names,
it might be listing all of the names of one person who had many names, and
it is not listing the names of different people. He explains that this is
the meaning of the verse in Nechemyah (7:7) which lists those who came back
from Bavel to Eretz Yisrael with Zerubavel: "The people who came with
Zerubavel: Yeshua, Nechemyah, Azaryah, Ra'amyah, Nachmani, Mordechai...."
The verse should be read without the punctuation and is listing the *full
name* (all of the names) of Zerubavel: "The people who came with Zerubavel
Yeshua Nechemyah: Azaryah, Ra'amyah, Nachmani, Mordechai...." Accordingly,
"Zerubavel Yeshua Nechemyah" is his full name. (See also Megilah 13a.) (The
Margoliyos ha'Yam cites this approach in the name of the Chida in Pesach
Einayim, but only the question appears there.)
2. The Chamra v'Chayei says that it seems that there were more than one
person named Nechemyah. When the verse in Sefer Nechemyah lists those who
returned from Bavel to Eretz Yisrael with Zerubavel and mentions Nechemyah,
it says only "Nechemyah" and not that he was the son of Chachalyah, which
suggests that this was a different Nechemyah. Indeed, we find a different
Nechemyah mentioned -- "Nechemyah ben Azbuk" (3:16).
The MARGOLIYOS HA'YAM cites RAV ARYEH LEIB LIPKIN in CHIDUSHEI AGADOS
MAHAR'AL (the brother of Rav Yisrael Salanter) who proves that when the name
Nechemyah is mentioned in the same verse as the name Zerubavel, it is
referring to a different Nechemyah and not to Nechemyah ben Chachalyah (for
Zerubavel himself was Nechemyah ben Chachalyah). He points out that in every
place that Nechemyah ben Chachalyah is mentioned, the verse mentions either
that he was the son of Chachalyah ("ben Chachalyah"), or it calls him
Nechemyah "ha'Tirshasa" (a title of prominence in the language of the Kasdim
(IBN EZRA), or a contraction of the words "Hitir Shasa," referring to the
fact that the Chachamim permitted him to drink the wine of Nochrim when he
served as the king's cupbearer (MEZTUDAS DAVID)), or the verse calls him
"ha'Pechah" ("the governor"); see, for example, Ezra 2:63, Nechemyah 7:5,
8:9, 10:2, 12:26. Only on two occasions does the verse say "Nechemyah" alone
without any addition -- in the two verses in which Nechemyah is mentioned
together with Zerubavel! (However, we do find a verse which mentions
Zerubavel together with Nechemyah without mentioning any other modifier to
Nechemyah's name, and yet it clearly is referring to Nechemyah ben
Chachalyah, the leader of the Jewish people: "All of Yisrael, in the days of
Zerubavel and in the days of Nechemyah, gave portions of food for the
singers and gatekeepers..." (Nechemyah 12:12), as RAV YAKOV EMDEN asks.)
(c) The CHAMRA V'CHAYEI proposes that the words "ben Chachalyah" do not
refer to the name of Nechemyah's father, but rather it means that Nechemyah
was the offspring of the person (Yechanyah) who was "Chayav Kalyah,"
destined to be punished with absolute destruction (as Yirmeyahu
prophesized), words from which the word "Chachalyah" is composed. (See YOSEF
DA'AS in the name of BEIS YISHAI.)
2) THE REASON NO TWO FACES ARE THE SAME
AGADAH: The Beraisa states that the reason Hashem made every person
different with a different appearance is so that a person will not see an
attractive house or an attractive woman and take it for himself, claiming
that he is the true owner or husband. RASHI explains that no one would be
able to contradict him if everyone looked the same.
What does this mean? If every person would have the same appearance, then no
woman would be more attractive than another! Why, then, would a man want to
take someone else's wife?
ANSWER: The ARUCH LA'NER explains that only the faces of people would have
been the same. Their limbs, though, would have been different. Hence, there
could have been a woman more attractive than another because she has more
attractive limbs than another.
RAV YAKOV EMDEN adds, similarly, that one would could have been healthier
than another. However, he says that the main explanation is that one woman
might be a better person, possessing better character traits and doing good
deeds.
In this vein, Rav Yakov Emden explains that the Gemara adds that had all
people been created with the same face, a person might have taken away
someone else's *house*, because a house is associated with the woman inside
of it. As everyone knows that this is her house, by taking her away from her
husband he is also claiming the house for himself as well. (Y. Montrose)
38b
3) THE LANGUAGE SPOKEN BY ADAM HA'RISHON
AGADAH: Rav Yehudah in the name of Rav says that Adam ha'Rishon spoke in
Aramaic. He proves this from the verse, "v'Li Mah Yakru Re'echa Kel" -- "How
precious to me are Your friends, G-d" (Tehilim 139:17). Reish Lakish says
that Adam ha'Rishon said this verse when Hashem showed him the generation of
Rebbi Akiva.
What is the proof from here that Adam spoke Aramaic?
(a) The YAD RAMAH states that the word could read as be "Rai'echa" ("Your
thoughts"), an Aramaic word which we find in Daniel (2:29), "Rai'yonach Al
Mishkevach Seliku" -- "Your thoughts [that you have while sleeping] upon
your bed have gone up."
(b) Alternatively, the YAD RAMAH explains that the word "Yakar" is an
Aramaic word. This is apparent from its appearance in Ezra (4:10) describing
Asnapar (Sancheriv) as "Raba v'Yakira" -- "great and honored."
The ARUCH LA'NER brings support to this explanation from the Gemara in
Megilah (9a). The Gemara there asks where in the Megilah do we find a word
which is really Aramaic which was changed into Hebrew. Rav Nachman answers
that we find such a word in the verse describing the edict of the king that
all women should give honor to their husbands -- "Yitnu Yikar l'Valeihen"
(Esther 1:20). The word "Yikar" ("honor") is Aramaic.
The MARGOLIYOS HA'YAM adds that there is a hint to Aramaic in the verse
quoted by our Gemara. The first letters of the Hebrew words "Mah Yakru
Re'echa Kel" spell the word "Arami."
(c) RAV YITZCHAK ISAAC CHAVER says that "Yakar" has different meanings
depending on whether it is being used in Hebrew or in Aramaic. When used in
Hebrew it means "honor," while in Aramaic it means "heavy" (meaning
difficult, serious, or severe). He explains that this is why the Gemara
quotes Reish Lakish as part of the proof that Adam ha'Rishon spoke Aramaic,
instead of merely citing the verse in Tehilim. Reish Lakish says that Adam
was happy with Rebbi Akiva's learning while saddened by his death, and it
was these thoughts that Adam was thinking when he said, "v'Li Mah Yakru...."
This shows that Adam was using the word "Yakru" to express how complex
Hashem's dealings are with His beloved ones (as the tragic death which Rebbi
Akiva met is very difficult for mortals to understand). The Aramaic usage of
"Yakar" shows that Adam spoke Aramaic.
(Rav Yitzchak Isaac Chaver's explanation seems difficult to understand. The
Gemara in Megilah quoted above says that "Yakar" is Aramaic and quotes a
verse in which "Yakar" means "honor!" It does not seem to be appropriate in
context to say that they should "give seriousness" to their husbands. This
seems to imply that "Yakar" can mean honor both in Hebrew and in Aramaic.)
(Y. Montrose)
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