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1)

(a) We have just learned the obligation of blowing on a *Shofar*, as well as that of blowing a Teki'ah before and a Teki'ah after each Teru'ah, from Yom Kipur of the Yovel with a Hekesh.
From where do we know to blow three Teru'os on Rosh Hashanah?

(b) But how can we combine Pesukim written by Rosh Hashanah together with Pesukim written by Yovel?

(c) How come that *before* we learned one from the other with a *'Hekesh'*, and *now* we are learning them with a *'Gezeirah-Shavah'*?

(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Beha'aloscha ...

1. ... "u've'Hakheil es ha'Kahal, Tiske'u ve'Lo Sari'u"?
2. ... "u'Seka'atem Teru'ah"?
3. ... "Teru'ah Yiske'u"?

(b) What does Rebbi Yishmael Be'no shel Rebbi Yochanan ben Berokah learn from ...

1. ... "u'Seka'atem Teru'ah Sheinis" (written by the departure of the second camp)?
2. ... the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' of "Teru'ah" "Teru'ah" (from the trumpets)?

(c) Even though we have just learned the three Teru'os from the Pesukim "Shabbason Zichron Teru'ah", "Yom Teru'ah" and "ve'Ha'avarta Shofar Teru'ah", the middle Pasuk is really needed for something else.
What is it needed for?

(d) Then what is the source of the third Teru'ah?

(a) Rebbi Shmuel bar Nachmeini Amar Rebbi Yonasan goes even further than the Tana Kama. In his opinion, only *one* Teru'ah is min ha'Torah. The 'Gezeirah-Shavah' is learned from "Shabbason Zichron Teru'ah".
What does he learn from "Yom Teru'ah"?

(b) Seeing as the Tana Kama anyway learns Rosh Hashanah from Yovel, why does he not also learn the Teki'ah before and after the Teru'ah from "ve'Ha'avarta Shofar" and "Ta'aviru Shofar"?

(c) So what *does* he learn from ...

1. ... "ve'Ha'avarta Shofar" (Rav Masna's Din)?
2. ... "Ta'aviru Shofar"?

(a) From where does the Tana of the first Beraisa learn Rav Masna's Din?

(b) What does he learn from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "*ve'Ha'avarta* Shofar" "va'Yetzav Moshe, *va'Ya'aviru* Kol ba'Machaneh"?

(c) And from where does the Tana who learns the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' from the trumpets, know that on Rosh Hashanah, we blow on a Shofar?

(a) Rebbi Avahu instituted in Caesaria that one blows blowing Teki'ah, three Shevarim, Teru'ah and Teki'ah (known in short as Ta*sh*ra*t*).
Why did he do that?

(b) What is the problem with that?

(c) What must the full version of his Takanah therefore have been?

(d) Seeing as they would anyway blow three sets of Ta*sha*t*, and three of Ta*ra*t* (as we just explained), why did he need to add the third set of Ta*sh*ra*t*?

(a) Why did he not also institute a set of Teki'ah, Teru'ah, Shevarim, Teki'ah, in case that is what "Teru'ah" means?

(b) How did they used to blow before Rebbi Avahu's Takanah?

7)

(a) What did Rebbi Yochanan say about someone who hears the nine Shofar- blasts over a period of nine hours?

(b) What did he say in the name of Rebbi Shimon ben Yehotzadak with regard to Hallel and Megilah?

(c) How do we reconcile this with his previous statement?

(d) What is wrong with the statement in the Beraisa, that someone who hears the nine blasts of the Shofar from nine people all blowing at the same time, is not Yotze? On what basis does Rashi erase it?

(a) Rebbi Avahu was reciting the Shema when he and Rebbi Yochanan entered unclean alleyways.
What did he do when they entered the alleyways and what did he ask his Rebbe as they left them?

(b) What was Rebbi Yochanan's reply?

(c) How do we reconcile this with his previous ruling with regard to hearing nine notes in nine hours?

(d) Would Rebbi Yochanan have required Rebbi Avahu to stop reciting the Shema whilst walking through the alleyways?

(a) On a Ta'anis (for rain etc.), one recites six extra Berachos in the Amidah, after each of which one blows the trumpets (See Rosh, Si'man 14). What does someone do if he is unable to blow some of the notes, or if one is not acquainted with some of the Berachos?

(b) This would not be the Halachah on Rosh Hashanah.
Why is that?

(a) What did Rav Papa bar Shmuel say to his Shames before he began his silent Tefilas Musaf one Rosh Hashanah?

(b) On what grounds did Rava object to that?

(c) One is permitted to blow Shofar for one's friend.
May he also render him Yotze the Amidah, if his friend answers 'Amein' to all the Berachos?

(a) What does the Beraisa rule regarding a person who has no Shofar and who is unable to Daven by heart (bear in mind that there were no Sidurim in the days of the Gemara)? Should he go to a town where they posses a Shofar but do not know how to Daven, or to a town where they know how to Daven but do not posses a Shofar?

(b) Considering that Shofar is a Mitzvah d'Oraysa, whereas Tefilah is only mi'de'Rabbanan, why did the Tana need to tell us this?

(a) According to Raban Gamliel (who permits the Shatz to render Yotze even those who are able to Daven), why do we Daven the silent Amidah at all?

(b) According to the Rabbanan, on the other hand (who obligate someone who is able to Daven himself, to do so), why does the Shatz repeat the Amidah?

(c) What did Raban Gamliel counter, when the Rabbanan answered him that?

(d) Rebbi Yochanan maintains that the Rabbanan later conceded that point to Raban Gamliel.
What did Rav say about that? Which prominent Amora agrees with Rav?