REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
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Rosh Hashanah 4
ROSH HASHANAH 2-10 have been sponsored by a generous grant from the Darchey
Noam Foundation.
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1)
(a) How can we refer to Koresh, who donated all the needs of the Beis
Hamikdash out of his own pocket, as having 'turned sour'?
(b) What do Chazal say about someone who declares that he will give Tzedakah
so that his sick son should recover, or so that he should go to Olam ha'Ba?
(c) Does he become a Tzadik by doing this once?
(d) Why do we not apply this principle to Koresh? So what if he *did* donate
the materials for the Beis-Hamikdash in his own self-interests?
2)
(a) Alternatively, Koresh turned sour, not in connection with the *donation*
of the materials, but in with the instructions that he issued for the Beis
Hamikdash's *construction*. What does this mean?
(b) Shlomoh Hamelech too, constructed one row of wood for every three rows
of stone. What are the three differences between the method used by Shlomoh
and that of Koresh?
(c) Rav Yosef (and some say Rebbi Yitzchak) ascribe Koresh's wickedness to
something quite different. What was that?
(d) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Bereishis "va'Hayu le'Basar Echad"?
3)
(a) The Pasuk in Daniel describes how Beltshatzar, together with his
princes, and, among others, his 'Sheigal', were drinking wine. Since when
do bitches drink wine?
(b) If 'Sheigal' means a bitch, then what does David Hamelech mean when he
writes "B'nos Melachim ... Nitzav Sheigal li'Yeminecha, be'Kesem Ofir"?
(c) Others say that 'Sheigal' really means a 'queen'. Then on what basis
does Rabah bar Limah quoting Rav say that it means a 'bitch'?
4)
We offer a fourth interpretation of Koresh's sin: Initially, we point out,
he offered limitless materials) without specifying amounts; but when it came
to the crunch, he fixed the quantity of each commodity. It seems that he
deteriorated between the initial offer and the time of the building. Why
do we refute this contention?
5)
(a) How can the Tana give Rosh Chodesh Nisan as the Rosh Hashanah for
Regalim, when Pesach is only on the fifteenth?
(b) What does Rebbi Shimon mean when he says in a Beraisa that sometimes one
has three Yamim-Tovim on which to bring one's Korbanos, sometimes, four and
sometimes, five (before transgressing 'Bal Te'acher')?
(c) What does the Tana Kama of Rebbi Shimon hold?
(d) Why must Rebbi Shimon therefore be the author of our Mishnah, (which
presents Nisan as Rosh Hashanah for the Regalim), and not the Tana Kama?
Answers to questions
4b---------------------------------------4b
6)
(a) Is 'Bal Te'acher confined to Korbanos, or does it also pertain to ...
- ... Kodshei Bedek ha'Habayis?
- ... Tzedakah?
(b) 'Bal Te'acher' also pertains to Leket, Shikchah and Pei'ah. How does
this apply practically (See Tosfos DH 'Leket ... ')?
(c) According to Rebbi Meir, 'Bal Te'acher' applies already after the
*first* Yom-Tov. When does it apply, according to Rebbi Eliezer ben
Ya'akov?
(d) The last opinion is that of Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon. When does one
transgress 'Bal Te'acher', according to him?
7)
(a) What is the source for the opinion of ...
- ... the Tana Kama, according to whom 'Bal Te'acher' applies after *three* Yamim-Tovim?
- ... Rebbi Shimon, who learns that it applies only after three Yamim-Tovim in their *right order*?
(b) Rebbi Meir learns that it applies after *one* Yom-Tov from "u'Vasa
Shamah va'Heveisem Shamah". What do the Rabbanan learn from there?
(c) What does Rebbi Meir say to that?
8)
(a) How does Rebbi Eliezer ben Ya'akov learn his opinion (*two* Yamim-Tovim)
from "Eileh Ta'asu la'Hashem be'Mo'adeichem"?
(b) What do the Rabbanan learn from the word "be'Mo'adeichem"?
9)
From where does Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon learn that it all depends on
*Chag ha'Sukos*?
10)
(a) What do Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Eliezer ben Ya'akov learn from the Pasuk
"be'Chag ha'Matzos, u've'Chag ha'Shzvu'os u've'Chag ha'Sukos"?
(b) Initially, we explain that we cannot compare Shavu'os to *Sukos* (to
give it *eight* days Tashlumin and not just *seven*), because Shemini
Atzeres is an independent Yom-Tov, and not part of Sukos. On what grounds
do we reject this answer?
(c) How do we then know to compare Shavu'os to *Pesach* in this regard,
rather than to *Sukos*?
(d) So why does the Torah include Sukos in this Pasuk?
Answers to questions
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