Previous daf

1) We quoted Rav Yehudah Amar Rav who learnt 'Ein Maftirin Achar Matzah Afikomon'. We asked a Kashya from a Beraisa, and we resolved the Kashya. Mar Zutra has a different text in Rav Yehudah Amar Rav, which the Gemara tries to prove from the same Beraisa and rejects on the same grounds as it did in the first Lashon.
How does Mar Zutra quoting Rav Yosef, quote Rav Yehudah Amar Shmuel?

2)

(a) Rava holds that Matzah nowadays is d'Oraysa, and Maror de'Rabbanan.
What is the problem with this from the Pasuk in Beha'aloscho "Al Matzos u'Merorim Yochluhu"?

(b) What is the answer?

(c) What does Rav Acha bar Ya'akov hold?

(d) What does he do with the Pasuk "ba'Erev Tochlu Matzos"?

(a) From where does Rava learn that a Tamei and a Derech Rechokah in the time of the Beis Hamikdash are Chayav to eat Matzah and Maror?

(b) According to Rav Acha bar Ya'akov, why can we not learn ...

1. ... Tamei and Derech Rechokah from Areil and Ben Neichar?
2. ... Areil and Ben Neichar from Tamei and Derech Rechokah (from "ba'Erev Tochlu Matzos")?

(c) The Beraisa supports Rava, learning the obligation to eat Matzah nowadays from "ba'Erev Tochlu Matzos".
What does the Tana also learn from "Sheshes Yamim Tochal Matzos, u'va'Yom ha'Shevi'i Atzeres la'Hashem Elokecha"?

(a) 'Yashnu Kulan, Lo Yochlu'.
Why is that?

(b) Why can we not explain that it is because it looks like eating the Pesach in two groups?

(c) Does this prohibition also apply to Matzah nowadays?

(d) Why can the Tana's reason not be because of 'Ein Maftirin Achar Matzah Afikoman'?

5)

(a) According to the Tana Kama, what will the Din be if only *some* of the participants fell asleep?

(b) According to Rebbi Yossi, 'someone' who dozes off, may continue to eat the Pesach (or Matzah nowadays) provided he did not fall into a deep sleep? Does he come to be lenient in the Seifa of our Mishnah (i.e. to permit even all the participants to continue eating the Pesach - provided they did *not* fall into a deep sleep), or to be strict in the Reisha (to forbid even some of them to do so, if they *did*)?

(c) What Din do Pigul and Nosar have after midnight?

(d) Why is the Korban Pesach Metamei the hands after midnight?

(a) How does Rav Ashi define 'doze'?

(b) Rabah dozed off in the middle of the Afikoman.
What did he answer Abaye, who asked him whether he had been dozing?

(c) What does this incident come to prove?

(a) Rebbi Elazar ben Azaryah uses "ba'Laylah ha'Zeh" (by Korban Pesach) for a Gezeirah Shavah to learn from Makas Bechoros that the Mitzvah of Pesach terminates at midnight. What does Rebbi Akiva (according to whom the Mitzvah of Pesach lasts until morning) do with "ba'Laylah ha'Zeh"?

(b) How does Rebbi Elazar ben Azaryah explain the Pasuk in Bo "ve'Lo Sosiru Mimenu Ad Boker"?

(c) Does Rebbi Akiva actually permit the Pesach to be eaten until morning?

(a) If not for "ha'Zeh", Rebbi Akiva would learn the time-period of eating the Korban Pesach from Shelamim to be two nights and one day.
What exactly, does this mean, according to ...

1. ... Rashi?
2. ... the Rashbam?

(b) Rava says that, nowadays, someone who eats Matzah after midnight - according to Rebbi Elazar ben Azaryah, is not Yotze.
Why would we have thought that he *is*?

(a) Rav Huna and Rav Chisda argue whether a k'Zayis of Pigul and Nosar is Metamei the hands, or only a k'Beitzah.
What is the source of their Machlokes?

(b) One of them ascribes the reason for this decree to 'Chashadei Kehunah', the other one, to 'Atzlei Kehunah'. In this point, they do not argue, because one of them applies to Pigul, and the other, to Nosar.
Which is which?