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1)

(a) What do we learn from ...

1. ... "be'Mo'ado" (mentioned in connection with the Tamid and the Pesach)?
2. ... "be'Mo'adeichem" (mentioned in connection with the other Yamim-Tovim)?
3. ... "Vayedaber Moshe es Mo'adei Hashem El B'nei Yisrael"?

(b) Why can we not learn ...

1. ... all the other Korbanos from the Tamid and the Pesach?
2. ... the Omer and the Sh'tei ha'Lechem from the other Korbanos?
3. ... the other Korbanos from the Omer and the Sh'tei ha'Lechem?

(a) What does 'Tum'ah Dechuyah Hi be'Tzibur' mean (as opposed to 'Tum'ah Hutrah Hi be'Tzibur')? What are the ramifications of this statement?

(b) Who is the only Tana to hold 'Tum'ah Hutrah Hi be'Tzibur'?

(a) What does Rebbi Shimon prove from the Kohen Gadol on Yom Kipur (with regard to the Tzitz)?

(b) What does Rebbi Yehudah's reply?

(c) What does 'ha'Tzitz Meratzeh Al Achilos' mean?

(d) And who is the only Tana to hold 'ha'Tzitz Meratzeh Al Achilos'?

5)

(a) What does Rebbi Yehoshua learn from the Pasuk in Re'ei "ve'Asisa Olosecha *ha'Basar ve'he'Dam*"?

(b) What does Rebbi Eliezer learn from the Pasuk there "ve'Dam Zevachecha Yishafech"?

(c) What does Rebbi Eliezer do with the Pasuk "ve'Asisa Olosecha *ha'Basar ve'he'Dam*"?

(d) Why does Rebbi Yehoshua disagree with this Derashah?

6)

(a) According to Rebbi Yehoshua, we now have two Pesukim to teach us that both the blood and the flesh are required, one for an Olah and one for a Shelamim.
Why would we not be able to learn ...

1. ... the Din by the Shelamim from that of the Olah?
2. ... the Din by the Olah from that of the Shelamim?

(b) What does Rebbi Eliezer do with the Pasuk "ve'ha'Basar Tochel"?

(c) Then how can he learn from the same Pasuk 'Dam, Af al Pi she'Ein Basar', since we need the entire Pasuk for the previous Derashah?

(a) Rebbi Yehoshua learns that the meat is forbidden until the blood has been sprinkled from a Kal va'Chomer (from the Emurim).
Which Kal va'Chomer?

(b) What does Rebbi Eliezer do with the Kal va'Chomer? Does he not hold of it?

(a) We began the Sugya by contending that the author of our Mishnah (which permits Zivchei Shalmei Tzibur and the other cases in our Mishnah be'Tum'ah, even though they are not eaten) cannot be Rebbi Yehoshua.
How do we reconcile at least Zivchei Shalmei Tzibur with Rebbi Yehoshua?

(b) The original contention remins however, by the Omer and the Sh'tei ha'Lechem. The Sh'tei ha'Lechem are completely eaten (and cannot at this stage conform with Rebbi Yehoshua's opinion). The Omer though, has a Kemitzah taken from it, which is brought on the Mizbei'ach.
Why is this not equivalent to the Emurim, so that the Omer could go like Rebbi Yehoshua, too?

(a) We then try to establish our Mishnah like Rebbi Yehoshua, by differentiating between Zevachim and Menachos.
What does this mean?

(b) We reject this however, on the basis of the Mishnah in Menachos 'Nitme'u Shireha ... ke'Midas Rebbi Yehoshua, Pesulah'. What is the Gemara proving from there?

(c) We also reject it on the basis of a Beraisa (which will be explained in detail later), where Rebbi Yossi discusses the Machlokes between Rebbi Eliezer and Rebbi Yehoshua.
What does Rebbi Yossi say there that forces us to retract from the statement in a.?

(a) We then try to establish our Mishnah like Rebbi Yehoshua, by saying that he too, holds 'Tzitz Meratzeh Al ha'Olin ve'Al ha'Achilos' (like Rebbi Eliezer).
In that case, what does the Mishnah in Menachos mean when it says 'Nitme'u Shireha, Avdu Shireha ... ke'Midas Rebbi Yehoshua Pesulah'? If Tzitz Meratzeh, why should it be Pasul?

(b) Based on the fact that the Mishnah in Menachos mentions 'Nitme'u Shireha', as well as 'Avdu' (or Nisrefu), the Gemara rejects this explanation, too.
Why can we not say that the Tana mentions Nitme'u because of Rebbi Eliezer (who holds that it is Kasher - since he holds 'Dam, Af al Pi she'Ein Basar')?

(c) What second proof does the Gemara bring to reject the suggestion that according to Rebbi Yehoshua, 'Tzitz Meratzeh Al ha'Olin ve'Al ha'Achilos'?

(a) We then try to establish our Mishnah even like Rebbi Yehoshua by distinguishing between Lechatchilah and Bedi'eved.
What does this mean?

(b) How do we know that Rebbi Yehoshua, on principle, makes such a distinction?

(c) We refute this answer however, on the basis of the above-mentioned Mishnah in Menachos 'ke'Midas Rebbi Yehoshua Pesulah (implying even Bedi'eved).
How do we further refute it from the expression used in our Mishnah 'Chamishah Devarim Ba'in be'Tum'ah'?

(d) How do we finally reconcile our Mishnah with Rebbi Yehoshua ?