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1)

(a) In which case will Rebbi Yehoshua concede to Rebbi Eliezer, that one should allow the Terumah wine to fall into the Tamei Chulin wine below, and why is that?

(b) How does Rava explain the Beraisa which says that *Rebbi Eliezer* agrees with *Rebbi Yehoshua* in the above case (when there are a hundred barrel- fulls of Chulin wine in the wine-press) that, if he cannot save the wine be'Taharah, he should rather allow it to fall into the wine-press?

(c) Rav Huna Brei de'Rav Yehoshua retains the text as it stands. He establishes the Beraisa by a vessel whose inside is Tahor, but whose outside is Tamei. What does this mean? How do we now explain the Beraisa?

2)

(a) 'Kol Sha'ah she'Mutar Le'echol, Ma'achil li'Vehemto' ... Is that not obvious? What is the Chidush?

(b) According to Rebbi Yehudah, Chametz must be burnt.
What do the Chachamim say?

(c) We infer from our Mishnah that as long as Chametz may not be eaten, it may not be fed to one's animals either.
In that case, why can the author of the Reisha of our Mishnah not be ...

1. ... Rebbi Yehudah?
2. ... Rebbi Meir?

(d) Who then, must be the author, and what does he mean by 'Kol Sha'ah she'Mutar Le'echol, Ma'achil'?

(a) Why does the Tana need to mention both animals and beasts? Why can we not learn one from the other?

(b) And why does he need to mention birds?

(a) As long as Chametz is Mutar be'Hana'ah, is it not obvious that one may sell it to a gentile? Why does the Tana need to tell us that?

(b) Rebbi Yehudah ben Beseira holds like Beis Shamai, who forbids the sale of Chametz to a gentile.
Why is that?

(c) What does Rebbi Yehudah ben Beseira say?

5)

(a) Why does the Tana then need to add 'u'Mutar be'Hana'ah'.
Is that not included in the previous cases?

(b) 'Avar Zemano, Asur be'Hana'aso'.
What is the Chidush?

(c) 've'Lo Yasik Bo Tanur ve'Kirayim'.
What is the Chidush?

(a) What does Chizkiyah learn from the Pasuk in Bo "Lo Ye'achel Chametz"?

(b) He argues with Rebbi Avahu's principle.
What is Rebbi Avahu's principle?

(c) What does Rebbi Avahu learn from the Pasuk in Re'ei "Lo Sochlu Kol Neveilah, la'Ger Asher bi'She'arecha Titenenah" ... ?

(a) The Torah writes "la'Ger Asher bi'She'arecha Titenenah va'Achalah, O Machor le'Nochri". According to Rebbi Meir, one may also *sell* Neveilah to a Ger or *give* it to a gentile.
From where does he learn this?

(b) What sort of a Ger is the Pasuk referring to?

(a) Rebbi Yehudah disagrees with Rebbi Meir.
What does *he* say?

(b) His opinion is based on the fact that the Torah writes "*O* Machor le'Nochri" (which divides the two) - and not "*U*Machor le'Nochri".
How does Rebbi Meir deal with this observation?

(c) Why does Rebbi Yehudah consider that unnecessary?

(a) Rebbi Avahu learns from the above Beraisa that whenever the Torah writes "Lo Yochal", "Sochal" or "Sochlu", it includes an Isur Hana'ah, unless otherwise specified (like the Pasuk quoted there).
Why does this go like Rebbi Meir, but not like Rebbi Yehudah?

(b) From where does Rebbi Avahu learn his principle according to Rebbi Yehudah?

(c) What does Rebbi Meir do with the Pasuk "la'Kelev Tashlichun *Oso*"?

(d) From where does Rebbi Yehudah learn that Chulin that were Shechted in the Azarah are Asur be'Hana'ah?

(a) Why do we need "Oso", according to Rebbi Yehudah, to teach us that all other things that are forbidden to eat are also Asur be'Hana'ah? Why could we not have made the same inference had the Torah just written "la'Kelev Tashliche*nu*"?

(b) And according to Rebbi Meir, why do we need "Oso" to forbid Hana'ah by Chulin that were Shechted in the Azarah? Why do we not know this from the fact that they are forbidden to eat?