Previous daf

1)

(a) What does the Tana of the Beraisa learn from the Pasuk in Sh'mos ...

1. ... "Vayomer Hashem el Moshe *be'Midyan, Lech* Shuv Mitzrayim"?
2. ... "Vayo'el Moshe Lasheves es ha'Ish"? Who is meant by "ha'Ish"?

(b) What exception do some commentaries make to the above rule? What precedent do we have for that?

(c) This distinction conforms with the reason given by the Yerushalmi (for the basic obligation of annulling a Neder in the presence of the person from whom he is Mudar), that he should feel embarrassed standing in the presence of his friend (for whose benefit he made the Neder in the first place), and abstain from annulling it. According to the other reason cited by the Yerushalmi, this distinction will not be applicable.
What is the Yerushalmi's second reason?

(a) What other ramifications do the above Machlokes in the Yerushalmi have?

(b) What other distinction do we make between a Neder that is for the Mudar's benefit and one that is not (according to all opinions)?

(c) Some commentaries want to permit Bedieved, a Neder that was revoked not in the presence of the Mudar, and they prove it from Tzidkiyahu and the Sanhedrin (who would not have revoked his Neder if at least Bedieved, the nullification would not be considered valid).
How do others refute this proof?

(a) What Shevu'ah did Tzidkiyahu ha'Melech make to Nevuchadnetzar?

(b) What made him decide to have it revoked?

(c) How did Nevuchadnetzar react when he heard people despising him, and he realized that Tzidkayohu must have contravened his oath?

(a) Tzidkiyahu explained to Nevuchadnetzar that a Neder can be revoked.
In which point then, did Nevuchadnetzar catch him out?

(b) How does Rebbi Yitzchak explain the Pasuk in Eichah "Yeishvu la'Aretz Yidmu Ziknei bas Tzi'on"?

(a) Rebbi Meir speaks about a case of someone who says 'Konem she'Eini Nosei es P'lonis, she'Avihah Ra', and he then learns that he died or did Teshuvah.
What similar case does he present about a mad dog?

(b) What does he mean when he refers to these cases as 'ke'Nolad, ve'Einan Nolad'?

(c) What do the Rabbanan say?

(a) Rebbi Yochanan disagrees.
How does *he* establish Rebbi Meir?

(b) What problem do we have with his basic explanation?

7)

(a) The Mishnah later presents a case of 'Konem she'Eini Nosei es P'lonis Ke'urah ve'Harei Hi Yafah '. Why does the Tana there not explain this in the same way as we explain our Mishnah (because the Noder depended the Neder to the woman's looks)? What is the difference between that case and the case of 'she'Avihah Ra ve'As'ah Teshuvah' in *our* Mishnah?

(b) Alternatively, it is because of the Lashon 'Ke'urah ve'Na'asis Na'ah'.
Why is that?

(c) Why does this later Mishnah present ...

1. ... no problem according to Rav Huna?
2. ... Rebbi Yochanan with a problem?

(a) In what context are the following Mitzvos mentioned in our Mishnah: "Lo Sikom", "Lo Sitor", "Lo Sisna es Achicha bi'Levavecha", "ve'Ahavta le'Rei'acha Kamocha" and "ve'Chei Achicha Imach"?

(b) What is the difference between all of these and the Sugya in 'Arba'ah Nedarim', where we prohibited using threats (such as the Beraisa of Rebbi Nasan 'Kol ha'Noder, Ke'ilu Banah Bamah') as a Pesach Charatah?

(c) Our Mishnah cites as part of the Pesach 'Shema Ye'ani, ve'Ein Ata Yachol Lefarneso'. Rav Huna (or Rav Chana) bar Rav Ketina queries this on the grounds that he is not obligated to help out a poor man single-handed.
Why would there be nothing wrong for the Noder to donate funds together with everybody else on behalf of the Mudar?

(d) How do the Rabbanan answer Rav Huna bar Rav Ketina?

(a) The Tana Kama says 'Poschin le'Adam bi'Kesuvas Ishto'.
What did Rebbi Akiva (who supports the Tana Kama's opinion) rule with regard to that man who made a Neder forbidding himself to have Hana'ah from his wife?

(b) What protest did the Noder lodge?

(c) What did he retort when Rebbi Akiva nevertheless insisted that he pay the four hundred Zuz of her Kesuvah (even if it meant selling the hair of his head to obtain the money)?

(d) How did Rebbi Akiva react to that?

(a) How does Abaye reject the proof from Rebbi Akiva (who obligated the Noder to give four hundred Zuz to pay his wife's Kesuvah), that Metaltelin [movable goods] are Meshubad (ear-marked) for a woman's Kesuvah?

(b) If, on the other hand, we rule that they are not, then what did Rebbi Akiva mean when he told the Noder that he must even sell the hair of his head (which is Metaltelin)?

(c) We conclude that Metaltelin is not Meshubad for a woman's Kesuvah.
In which way is this Din even weaker than that of a creditor, who is not permitted to claim from Metaltelin (according to the Rabbanan of Rebbi Meir) either?

(d) According to Rebbi Meir, the difference works in the reverse direction.
What does Rebbi Meir say about the Metaltelin of a husband?

(a) Our Mishnah appears to hold 'Ein Mesadrin le'Ba'al-Chov'.
What does this mean?

(b) What is the problem with that?

(c) What do those who hold 'Mesadrin' say?

(d) How do we therefore repudiate the implication from our Mishnah?

Next daf