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REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI

prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Nazir 39

1)

(a) S'tam Nezirus lasts thirty days. The Tana of our Mishnah requires a Nazir who shaved his head or who was shaved by someone else, to count another thirty days.
Is this always the case? What will be the Din if he shaved ...
  1. ... on the twentieth day of his Nezirus?
  2. ... on the thirtieth day of a sixty-day Nezirus?
(b) The Torah writes "Ta'ar Lo Ya'avor al Rosho".
Is a Nazir Chayav Malkos for cutting his hair with scissors or for pulling out hair with his hand?

(c) How many hairs must he cut in order to be Chayav?

2)
(a) We ask whether hair grows from the tip or from the root.
What are the ramifications of this She'eilah?

(b) What is the significance of that Shiur?

3)
(a) Why can we not prove from ...
  1. ... the egg of a louse, which remains on the head even though the hair grows, that it grows from the tip?
  2. ... a dead louse, which also remains on the head even though the hair grows, that it grows from the tip?
(b) What is 'B'luris shel Kushim'?

(c) Why is there no proof from 'B'luris shel Kushim', which they plaited firmly, but the plaits came loose as the hair grew, that the hair must grow from its roots?

4)
(a) We finally resolve our She'eilah from the Mishnah in Bechoros concerning the painting of animals that had been designated for Ma'aser Beheimah. What do prove from there?

(b) What second proof do we bring from men's beards?

(c) How could we have brought the same proof from the animals of Ma'aser Beheimah?

Answers to questions

39b---------------------------------------39b

5)

(a) What does the Beraisa say about a Nazir whom robbers shaved, leaving sufficient hair to bend the tips to the roots?

(b) What problem do we have with this Beraisa based on what we just learned earlier?

(c) How do we answer this Kashya? Regarding which day is the Tana speaking, what does 'Eino Soser' mean, and who is the author of this Beraisa?

(d) What is Rebbi Eliezer's source for the seven-days growth by Nezirus Taharah?

6)
(a) According to the Rabbanan, a Nazir who shaves on the thirtieth day is obligated to count another thirty days before terminating his Nezirus. From where do they learn this?

(b) To what extent would the robbers have to shave the Nazir's head on the thirtieth day for him to not be obligated to begin his Nezirus again?

(c) Is there any way of establishing the Beraisa like the Rabbanan?

(d) In which way might the Din differ if we would establish the Beraisa like them?

7)
(a) If the robbers did not leave a seven-day growth on the Nazir's head, how many days would the he be obligated to count ...
  1. ... according to Rebbi Eliezer?
  2. ... according to the Rabbanan (assuming this happened on the thirty-second day)?
(b) Does this mean that he is completely absolved from shaving?
8)
(a) We have already learned that a Nazir receives Malkos for destroying even one hair, irrespective of how he does it. Rebbi Yashiyah in a Beraisa learns from the Pasuk "Kadosh Yih'yeh, Gadeil Pera Se'ar Rosho" that he transgresses an Asei if he just trims it.
How does Rebbi Yonasan explain the corollary between this Pasuk and that of "Ta'ar Lo Yavo al Rosho"?

(b) What does the Tana in a second Beraisa learn from "Lo Ya'avor al Rosho"?

(c) We ask why, seeing as the Torah anyway includes all forms of destruction, the Torah needs to write "Ta'ar".
Why can we not answer that it writes "Ta'ar" in order to teach us that the La'av is confined to destroying the hair ('ke'Ein Ta'ar'), to preclude trimming?

9)
(a) We conclude that the Torah uses "Ta'ar" to teach us that the final Mitzvah of shaving the Nazir must be performed with a razor.
Why can we not learn this from a Metzora, who shaves his hair specifically with a razor? In which way is the shaving of a Metzora more stringent than that of a Nazir?

(b) Rebbi disagrees with this D'rashah.
What does he mean when he says 'Eino Tzarich'? From where does *he* learn that the Mitzvah must be performed with a razor?

(c) If, as Rebbi maintains, "Ta'ar" is needed for the La'av itself, why does the Torah then write "Ta'ar", seeing one is even Chayav for shaving by other means (like we asked earlier)?

(d) And how does Rebbi know this? How does he know that the Pasuk does not write "Ta'ar" specifically to teach us that the Mitzvah must be performed with a razor?

Answers to questions

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