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1)

(a) Which case is the Torah talking about when it writes "ve'Timei Rosh Nizro"?

(b) Which two obligations does that Tum'ah create?

(c) How do we use this Beraisa to resolve Rav Ashi's She'eilah (whether a Nazir be'Kever is obligated to shave or not)? What does the Tana go on to preclude?

(a) How do we learn from "ve'Timei Rosh Nizro" to exempt a Nazir be'Kever from the above Dinim?

(b) What would we have said, were it not for this Pasuk?

(a) We have already learned the Beraisa which presents the sole difference between a Tamei she'Nazar and a Nazir Tahor she'Nitma as being whether the seventh day counts as the first of the thirty days of Nezirus de'Taharah or not. We establish the author of the Beraisa as being Rebbi, who argues with Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah.
What does Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah say?

(b) "ve'Kidash es Rosho ba'Yom ha'Hu".
What does "ba'Yom ha'Hu" mean according to ...

1. ... Rebbi?
2. ... Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah?

(a) Rav Chisda establishes the author of the Mishnah in Kerisus which states 'Nazir she'Nitma Tum'os Harbeh Eino Meivi Ela Korban Echad' as Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah.
What is the Mishnah referring to?

(b) Why could the author of this Mishnah not be Rebbi if the Tana was speaking in the case that we just described?

(c) And what would Rebbi hold if the Nazir became Tamei on each consecutive *eighth* day?

(a) What does Rebbi learn from the Pasuk in Naso "ve'Chiper Alav me'Asher Chata al ha'Nefesh ... ve'Kidash es Rosho ba'Yom ha'Hu"?

(b) How does Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah counter Rebbi's proof?

(c) How does Rebbi deal with that?

6)

(a) Rav Chisda just established the Mishnah in Kerisus ('Nazir she'Nitma Tum'os Harbeh ... ') like Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah.
Why do we initially think that the author could be Rebbi, by establishing it on the night of the eighth? What advantage would the night of the eighth have over the day in this regard?

(b) We suggest that Rav Chisda nevertheless chooses to establish the Mishnah like Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah because he holds 'Laylah La'av Mechusar Z'man'.
What does this mean?

(c) In fact, Rav Ada bar Ahavah counters, it is not a question of what Rav Chisda holds, but what Rebbi and Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah (respectively) hold, because their personal opinion in this point is linked to their opinion in the Mishnah.
What is the opinion (regarding 'Laylah Mechusar Z'man') of ...

1. ... Rebbi?
2. ... Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah?

(a) We learned in a Beraisa 'Nitma ba'Shevi'i, ve'Chazar ve'Nitma ba'Shevi'i Ela Meivi Ela Korban Echad'.
On what grounds do we repudiate the word 'Gufa' from the text?

(b) What does the Tana then say about the next case 'Nitma ba'Shemini, ve'Chazar ve'Nitma ba'Shemini'?

(c) And he continues 'Maschil u'Moneh Miyad, Divrei Rebbi Eliezer'.
When is 'Miyad'?

(d) Why can it not refer to the eighth day?

(a) In the previous case, the Chachamim hold that the Tamei Nazir cannot begin counting his Nezirus de'Taharah until he has actually brought his Chatas. Rebbi Yishmael B'no shel Rebbi Yochanan ben Berokah goes even further.
What does he say?

(b) What does Rebbi Eliezer learn from the Pasuk "ve'Kadash es Rosho *ba'Yom ha'Hu*?

(c) The Rabbanan learn from "ba'Yom ha'Hu" that even though the Chatas is crucial to the Kaparah, the Asham is not.
What does Rebbi Yishmael B'no shel Rebbi Yochanan ben Berokah learn from "ba'Yom ha'Hu"?

(d) What do the Rabbanan say to that?

(a) The S'vara of the Rabbanan (that the Olah is merely a gift ... ) is sound.
Why does Rebbi Yishmael B'no shel Rebbi Yochanan ben Berokah then require a Pasuk to preclude it?

(b) In that case, how does he know (even with "ba'Yom ha'Hu") that it is the *Chatas* that determines the Kaparah, and not the *Olah*?

(c) In view of the Beraisa currently under discussion, how do we know that Rebbi, whom we quoted above as saying "ve'Kadash es Rosho ba'Yom ha'Hu", 'be'Yom Hava'as Korbenosav', does not hold like the Chachamim (who requires the Chatas to have actually been brought, before counting the Nezirus de'Taharah) or like Rebbi Yishmael B'no shel Rebbi Yochanan ben Berokah (who even requires the Asham to have been brought, too)?

(a) What do the Rabbanan learn from the Pasuk "*ve'Hizir* la'Hashem es Yemei Nizro, *ve'Heivi* Keves ben Shenaso le'Asham"?

(b) How does Rebbi Yishmael B'no shel Rebbi Yochanan ben Berokah interpret "ve'Hizir ... ve'Heivi"?

(c) According to the Rabbanan, why do we need both "ve'Hizir ... ve'Heivi" and "ba'Yom ha'Hu", both of which seem to be teaching us the same thing?

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