Previous daf

1)

(a) What does someone mean if he says ...

1. ... 'Hareini Nazir Achas Gedolah'?
2. ... 'Hareini Nazir Achas Ketanah'?
3. ... 'Hareini Nazir mi'Ka'an ve'Ad Sof ha'Olam'?

(b) We interpret his words leniently in this latter case.
If not for the Mishnah, what would we have otherwise thought?

(c) What does the Mishnah later say about someone who says 'Hareini Nazir mi'Ka'an ve'Ad Makom P'loni', if there are ...

1. ... less than thirty days walking distance from where he is to that place?
2. ... more than thirty days?

(d) Why do we not say there (even in the latter case) too, like we say in *our* Mishnah, that what he really meant was that the Nezirus is hard on him like it is to walk to that place, and he is a Nazir for thirty days?

(a) Why, in the latter case in our Mishnah, do we not declare him a Nazir for as many days as there are Parsah from one end of the world to the other?

(b) Why can we not explain this last Kashya on the Mishnah later ('Hareini Nazir mi'Ka'an ve'Ad Makom P'loni') which we were just discussing?

(c) What does the Beraisa say about someone who declares himself a Nazir like the dust of the earth or like the hair of his head ... ?

(d) Then, in similar fashion, why do we not say in our Mishnah too, that he is a Nazir for as many times as there are inns from one end of the world to the other? On what basis do we interpret the Noder's words leniently?

(a) What does the Tana of the Beraisa say about someone who declares Nezirus for ...

1. ... as long as he lives, or forever?
2. ... for a hundred or even a thousand years?

(b) What does this distinction prove?

(c) In that case, why is the Din in our Mishnah not the same as the Din in the Beraisa? Why is he not a Nazir for one long period until the day of his death?

(a) How does Rabah differentiate between our Mishnah ('mi'Ka'an ve'Ad Sof ha'Olam'), and the Mishnah later ('ka'Afar ha'Aretz u'che'Sa'ar Roshi ... ')?

(b) Why is his explanation not disproved from the Pasuk in Bereishis "Vayehi Erev, Vayehi Voker, Yom Echad" (which appears to divide the days)?

(c) Rava has a different approach to explain the Seifa of our Mishnah. According to him, the Seifa is connected to the Reisha.
What does this mean?

(d) In which point do the previous Amora'im disagree with Rava?

(a) What will be the Din if someone says 'Hareini Nazir ve'Yom Echad'?

(b) Having taught us this, why does the Tana of our Mishnah need to add the case of 'Hareini Nazir ve'Sha'ah Echas' to teach us the same thing? Why might the Din there have been different?

(c) And having taught us that, why does he then deem it necessary to add the case of 'Hareini Nazir u'Mechtzah' to teach us the same thing yet again? What might we have otherwise thought there?

(d) Is there such a thing as Nezirus for less than thirty days?

6)

(a) What does the Tana say about someone who says 'Hareini Nazir Sheloshim Yom ve'Sha'ah Achas'?

(b) According to Rav, how long is a person a Nazir if he says ...

1. ... 'Hareini Nazir Sheloshim-ve'Echad Yom'?
2. ... 'Hareini Nazir Sheloshim Yom ve'Yom Echad'?

(c) Why the difference?

(d) Rav seems to refer to our Mishnah when he says 'Lo Shanu Ela de'Amar Sheloshim ve'Echad Yom'.
But what does that have to do with our Mishnah, which discusses 'Hareini Nazir Sheloshim Yom ve'Sha'ah Achas', but not about the case quoted by Rav?

(a) Rav follows the opinion of Rebbi Akiva in Bava Basra.
What does the Mishnah there say about someone who sells a house including the depth and the height? Does the sale include pits and enclosures?

(b) According to Rebbi Akiva, the path leading to the pits and to the enclosures is included in the sale.
What do the Rabbanan say?

(c) What is the basis of their Machlokes?

(d) In which case will Rebbi Akiva agree with the Rabbanan that he retains the path for his own use?

Next daf