Previous daf

1)

(a) Rebbi Yehudah said in our Mishnah 'be'Yisrael Chodesh Echad Yekayem ... be'Kohen Sh'nayim Yekayem ... '. According to Abaye, Rebbi Yehudah is coming to teach us that a Kohen waits two months.
In what way does he argue with the Tana Kama according to Rava?

(b) According to Rav, it is only if he specified a time up to thirty days that the husband is permitted to feed his wife through a trustee.
What will be the Din if he did not?

(c) What does Shmuel say?

(a) Rav and Shmuel argue over the same point in 'Af-al-pi' (regarding the Machlokes between Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel about a man who makes a Neder forbidding his wife from having Tashmish with him), and for the same reasons, apparently duplicating their views here.
Why might we have thought that, had Rav said his Din in Af-al-Pi, he might nevertheless agree with Shmuel in our case that even by S'tam he should wait thirty days?

(b) We learned in our Mishnah that if a man made a Neder forbidding his wife to eat a certain type of fruit even for just one day, he is obligated to divorce her immediately and pay her Kesuvah.
How does Rav resolve the discrepancy between the Reisha and the Seifa?

(c) How will Shmuel (who does not differentiate between whether the husband mentioned a time-period or not) resolve the apparent discrepancy?

(d) According to Shmuel then, the author of our Mishnah holds 'Hu Nosen Etzba Bein Shinehah''.
Who will then be the author of our Mishnah?

(a) Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yehudah say in a Beraisa that if a woman who made the Nazarite vow and her husband did not nullify it, he is entitled to divorce her without a Kesuvah, should he so wish.
On which principle is this ruling based?

(b) What do Rebbi Yossi and Rebbi Elazar say?

(c) How do we initially amend the opinions in the Beraisa, in order to resolve the discrepancy in Rebbi Meir?

(d) Rebbi Yossi now holds Hi Nasnah Etzba ... '.
How do we amend the Beraisa again to resolve the discrepancy in Rebbi Yossi, who says in our Mishnah, that if a poor woman made a Neder not to adorn herself, he divorces her immediately and *pays her Kesuvah* (because 'Hu Nasan Etzba ... ')?

(a) Why does Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah, who says 'be'Yisrael, Yom Echad Yekayem ... ' force us to amend the above Beraisa once more?

(b) How does the Beraisa now read?

(c) Alternatively, we prefer to learn the two opinions in the Beraisa as two pairs, in which case it will read 'Rebbi Meir ve'Rebbi Elazar Omrim Hi Nasnah; Rebbi Yehudah ve'Rebbi Yossi Omrim, Hu Nasan'.
How will we then reconcile this with our S'tam Mishnah, which (as we established earlier) holds 'Hu Nasan Etzba ... '?

(a) The Tana Kama of the Mishnah in Nedarim, listing Nidrei Inuy Nefesh (Nedarim that the husband is permitted to nullify due to the anguish that they cause his wife), includes Nedarim that concern the woman washing herself and adorning herself.
What does Rebbi Yossi say about these cases?

(b) How do we initially reconcile this with Rebbi Yossi in our Mishnah, who penalizes a husband (by obligating him to pay her Kesuvah) who upheld his poor wife's Neder not to adorn herself (indicating that he is authorized to nullify Nedarim concerning a woman not wearing make-up)?

(c) According to Rebbi Yossi, what else does Nidrei Inuy Nefesh comprise besides a Neder not to eat meat or not to drink wine?

6)

(a) Rav Huna holds that a husband has the authority to nullify Nedarim she'Beino le'Veinah.
What does Rav Ada bar Ahavah say?

(b) How do we establish Rebbi Yossi in our Mishnah according to Rav Ada bar Ahavah (in whose opinion a man cannot nullify Nedarim she'Beino le'Veinah)?

(c) How can a woman make such a Neder, seeing as she is Meshubad to her husband for Tashmish?

(d) Why do we not then say ...

... Let her not adorn herself and she will not become forbidden to her husband (so how can her husband nullify it)? ... Let her adorn herself and become forbidden for one week, according to Beis Shamai, or two, according to Beis Hillel? Why is he obligated to divorce her immediately?

(a) According to Rebbi Yossi in our Mishnah, when the husband specifies a time-limit (regarding the Neder of not putting on make-up of a poor woman) we do not force him to divorce his wife and pay her Kesuvah for twelve months, according to Rav Yehudah Amar Shmuel.
Why does Rav Chisda Amar Avimi give the time limit as until the following Yom-Tov?

(b) Rabah bar bar Chanah Amar Rebbi Yochanan gives the longest time period of all.
What is it?

(c) Rebbi Yossi gives the time-limit by a rich woman as thirty days.
Why is that?

(a) If a husband makes a Neder forbidding his wife to visit her father, what is the time-limit that he is permitted to remain with her and not pay her Kesuvah, if her father lives ...

1. ... in the same city as they do?
2. ... in another city?

(b) What will be the Din if he forbids her to visit the Aveilim or to attend weddings?

(a) The Tana writes (with regard to a Neder forbidding his wife to visit her father who lives in another city) 'Regel Echad, Yekayem; Sheloshah, Yotzi'. What is the significance of 'Regel' in this case?

(b) *Two* Regalim appears to be a clash of inferences. Abaye answers that the Seifa refers to a Kohenes, and that the author is Rebbi Yehudah.
What does he mean by that?

(c) How does Rabah bar Ula solve the problem?

(a) How does Rebbi Yochanan interpret the Pasuk in Shir ha'Shirim "Az Hayisi be'Einav ke'Mutz'eis Shalom"?

(b) How does Rebbi Yochanan or Rebbi Yonasan explain the Pasuk in Hoshei'a "ve'Hayah ba'Yom ha'Hu Ne'um Hashem, Tikre'i Ishi ve'Lo Tikre'i Ba'ali"?

Next daf