The Gemara says that in each case, only the principle amount of the Kesuvah
(100 Zuz for an Almanah, or 200 Zuz for a Besulah) remains. The husband is
not required to pay the Tosefes (the extra money that he wrote in the
original Kesuvah) because, as Rashi explains, the original Kesuvah document
itself was not valid (since the original marriage was not a legal Jewish
marriage). The husband's only obligation to his wife is based on the "Tenai
Beis Din" that requires every husband to give his wife the basic Kesuvah,
whether or not a Kesuvah document has been written.
If the original Kesuvah indeed is null and void, then why does the Mishnah
state that "the original Kesuvah is intact... because he kept her as his wife
on that condition?" Even without the original Kesuvah the husband is
automatically required to pay his wife the basic amounts of the Kesuvah
(because of the Tenai Beis Din), so in what way is the original Kesuvah is
intact? (TOSFOS DH Lo)
(a) The Rishonim cite RABEINU TAM (see Tosfos ha'Rosh, Ritva) who answers
that the Mishnah is teaching that even though the document has no validity
with regard to the time *before* the marriage took effect legally, it is
considered a valid document from the time that the marriage took effect
legally (i.e. after the Katan reached adulthood or after the Nochrim
converted). Hence, any land of the husband's that was sold before the legal
marriage cannot be collected for the Kesuvah; it is not considered Nechasim
Meshubadim. But any land of the husband's that was sold after the legal
marriage *can* be collected for the Kesuvah.
Normally, a pre-dated contract of debt is invalid because it implies that the
lien on the property started from the earlier date written in the document
and thus it will cause a loss to the buyers who purchased the property from
the borrower (or husband) before the actual date of the loan (or marriage).
The Mishnah, though, is teaching that in the case of a Kesuvah of a Katan who
matured there is no such concern, and the original document, although pre-
dated, may be used, because no one could have purchased land from the Katan
before he reached adulthood and the marriage became valid, since a Katan does
not have the authority to sell land! Therefore, the document is valid even
though it is pre-dated.
(b) The TOSFOS HA'ROSH does not accept this explanation, since it does not
answer why the Kesuvah of the Ger is acceptable, because a Ger was able to
sell land when he was a Nochri. The Tosfos ha'Rosh also asserts that the
manager (Apotropos) of the estate of a Katan may sell property on behalf of
the Katan, and thus there should be a concern that the buyers will lose their
property!
The Tosfos ha'Rosh, as well as TOSFOS (DH Lo), therefore maintain that the
Mishnah is teaching us that although the original Kesuvah is not valid, the
woman nevertheless receives a Kesuvah of a Besulah (200 Zuz) like she would
have received had the original marriage been valid, even though at the time
that the marriage took effect she was no longer a Besulah. In that sense, the
original Kesuvah obligation still remains.
The reason for this is apparently because the Kesuvah of a Besulah is greater
because of the more intimate relationship a man has with his wife if he first
married her as a Besulah (see Tosfos 4a DH Be'ilas; RASHBA 11a on the second
Mishnah). Since the present marriage of the Katan is a continuation of the
marriage-like relationship he had with his "wife" before he reached maturity,
we consider their relationship to be that of a man and his Besulah wife,
rather than that of a man and his Be'ulah wife. (TOSFOS in Sanhedrin 76b
proves from our Mishnah that although the act of Nesu'in performed by a Katan
is not valid, nevertheless his Bi'ah is not considered Be'ilas Z'nus. We see
from here that the logic that the man gives the woman the Kesuvah based on
her status at the *beginning* of their relationship applies only if the
beginning of the relationship was not deemed Z'nus. If it was started with
Z'nus, she would only receive a Kesuvah of 100 Zuz. See also DAGUL MERAVEVAH
EH 67:6).
An important question may be posed on Tosfos' answer. Why should a Ger be
required to give the wife he converted with the Kesuvah of a Besulah (200
Zuz)? We learned earlier (11a) that a Nochris older than three years of age
is always considered to be a Be'ulah. Thus, even when the Nochri originally
married her, she had the status of a Be'ulah! Consequently, she should not be
entitled to receive 200 Zuz for her Kesuvah, but she should receive only 100
Zuz!
The Rishonim suggest a number of answers to this question:
1. The TOSFID RID says that the case of the Mishnah is where a Nochri (before
he converted) married a Jewess, and thus she was indeed a Besulah at the time
of the marriage.
The Rishonim strongly reject this explanation, because the wording of the
Mishnah implies that both the husband and wife became Gerim. Moreover, the
Mishnah would not be teaching a Halachah with regard to someone who performed
an Isur (i.e. a woman who married a Nochri).
2. The RIVASH and others say that the case of the Mishnah is where a Nochri
married a Nochris when she was under three years old. In such a case, she was
certainly a Besulah when she was married (see Mishnah, 11a), and thus she
receives 200 Zuz for her Kesuvah.
3. The CHELKAS MECHOKEK (EH 67:13) says that Tosfos is of the opinion that
the woman receives 200 Zuz only when he actually wrote her a Kesuvah when
they were Nochrim. Even though he is not obligated to give her 200 Zuz based
on what he originally wrote in the Kesuvah, we still assume that he remains
married with her with the *intention* of keeping the original obligation,
since *he* considered her a Besulah at the time (see also IGROS MOSHE EH
1:101).
However, the RAMBAM (Hilchos Ishus 11:7; see also Shitah Mekubetzes in the
name of "Rabeinu Moshe") is of the opinion that in the case of the Ger, the
woman indeed only receives 100 Zuz for her Kesuvah, even though her original
Kesuvah was for 200 Zuz. According to the Rambam, we must find another
explanation for what the Mishnah means by saying that "the original Kesuvah
remains intact."
(c) The RITVA answers that the Mishnah is not teaching anything about the
*amount* of the Kesuvah that she receives. Rather, it is teaching that she is
*eligible* to receive the Kesuvah.
He explains that even though the couple did not have a formal marriage after
the Katan reached adulthood, or after the Nochri converted, they are
considered legally married because of "Ein Adam Oseh Be'ilaso Be'ilas Z'nus";
a person does not want his relations to be extra-marital. This type of
marriage happens without *explicit* intent for marriage on the part of the
husband, but through the assumption ("Umdena") that he would certainly prefer
marriage to extra-marital relations. One might have thought that for an
"unplanned" marriage such as this, the Rabanan did not institute a Kesuvah.
Therefore the Mishnah teaches that this is not so; his wife has the rights to
a Kesuvah since "he kept her as his wife on that condition." This might be
the way the Rambam (see end of (b), above) explained our Mishnah as well.