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1)

(a) In what connection does Rav Papa mention Hurmiz, Avudina, bar Shivsa'i, Bar Kidri, Bati and Nakim? What do they all have in common?

(b) If Rebbi Shimon's S'vara for validating even Gitin that were written in a Nochri law-court is confined to where the names on the Get are typical Nochri names (as we just explained), then why does he conclude 'Lo Huzkeru Ela bi'Z'man she'Na'asu be'Hedyot' (rather than 'Lo Huzkeru Ela be'Sheimos Muvhakin')?

(c) Alternatively, the concluding statement refers, not to Gitei Nashim, but to other Sh'taros.
What does this mean? Who will then be the author of the statement?

(a) A Beraisa in which Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Yossi cites Rebbi Shimon, corroborates the latter explanation of the concluding statement in our Mishnah.
Which Tana does Rebbi Shimon quote who even validates Sh'taros that are written by Nochri Hedyotos?

(b) What is the basis of the distinction that Rebbi Shimon draws between Gitei Nashim and other Sh'taros that are written by a Nochri Hedyot?

(c) Which two conditions does Rebbi Shimon require for Gitei Nashim to be valid?

(a) How does Raban Shimon ben Gamliel qualify the concession of the previous Tana'im in the Beraisa regarding Gitei Nashim?

(b) Why does he not decree a place where they deny Jews the right to sign on documents on account of a place where they do not (just like he decrees typical Nochri names because of names that are not in a town where Jews are permitted to sign on Sh'taros)?

(c) What objection did Rafram raise when Ravina wanted to validate other Sh'taros that were written by a group of Nochrim?

(a) What did Rava rule with regard to a Sh'tar Parsa'ah? What is a Sh'tar Parsa'ah?

(b) Rava must speak when the witnesses are conversant with the language in which the Sh'tar is written. We also establish Rava by a Sh'tar that was treated with Afeitzan.
What is 'Afeitzan'?

(c) Why is this essential? What would have been the problem had the Sh'tar not been treated with Afeitzan?

(a) What other vital condition must have been maintained by the Nochri law-courts, without which the Sh'taros could not have been Kasher?

(b) In that case, why could the claimant not claim even from Meshubadim (that purchasers had bought)?

6)

(a) What did Resh Lakish ask Rebbi Yochanan concerning a Get that came before Beis-Din, whose signatories had Nochri names?

(b) Where was the Get written?

(c) Rebbi Yochanan replied that this had only happened once.
What did he rule on that occasion? What is the significance of the fact that the names of the signatories were Lukus and Lus?

(a) What does the Beraisa say regarding Gitin that come from overseas whose signatories have Nochri names (and whose nationality we therefore have reason to doubt)?

(b) How do we reconcile this with Rebbi Yochanan, who requires such typical names as Lukus and Lus before the Get can be valid?

(c) What is the alternative version of Resh Lakish's She'eilah and Rebbi Yochanan's reply?

(a) Rebbi Meir states in our Mishnah that if someone asks a Sheli'ach to hand a Get to his wife or a Sh'tar Shichrur to his slave, he can retract from both.
Why is that?

(b) Until when can he retract?

(c) The Rabbanan agree with Rebbi Meir regarding the Get but not regarding the Sh'tar Shichrur.
Why the difference?

(d) What did the Rabbanan reply when Rebbi Meir asked them about the slave belonging to a Kohen, who, by giving him a Sh'tar Shichrur, disqualifies him from eating Terumah?

(a) What did Rav Huna extrapolate from the Rabbanan, who said in our Mishnah that the Sheli'ach seizes the Sh'tar Shichrur on behalf of the slave?

(b) Rav Yitzchak bar Yosef asked him whether this will also extend to a case where it would cause a loss to others.
What might be the case?

(c) What did Rav Huna reply to the She'eilah?

(d) He seems to have learned this from our Mishnah.
Why is the case in our Mishnah considered a loss to others?

(a) What did Rebbi Yirmiyah (who was their senior, and who had been dozing in their vicinity) quote Rebbi Yochanan as saying, when he awoke?

(b) Then why is the Sheli'ach's seizing effective according to the Rabbanan in our Mishnah?

(a) In the Mishnah in Pe'ah, Rebbi Eliezer says that if the owner collects Pe'ah on behalf of a particular poor man, he acquires it on his behalf. What do the Chachamim say?

(b) How did Rav Chisda propose to explain this Machlokes?

(c) We refute Rav Chisda's proposition however.
Why might ...

1. ... Rebbi Eliezer permit the owner to seize Pe'ah on behalf of a poor man, even if he would normally prohibit seizing a debt on behalf of one creditor at the expense of another?
2. ... the Rabbanan forbid the owner to seize Pe'ah on behalf of a poor man, even if they would normally permit seizing a debt on behalf of one creditor at the expense of another?

(d) What does Rebbi Eliezer then extrapolate from the juxtaposition of " ... Lo Selaket, le'Ani ... " (Kedoshim)?

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