THOUGHTS ON THE DAILY DAF
brought to you by Kollel Iyun Hadaf of Har Nof
Rosh Kollel: Rav Mordecai Kornfeld
Ask A Question about the Daf
Previous daf
Gitin, 12
GITIN 12 - This Daf has been dedicated to the memory of Moshe Simcha ben
David Z"L Rubner by his parents, David and Zahava Rubner of Petach Tikva.
|
1) GATHERING PE'AH ON BEHALF OF A SPECIFIC POOR PERSON
QUESTIONS: The Gemara (11b) attempts to prove from a Mishnah (Pe'ah 4:9)
that it is a Machlokes Tana'im whether one may acquire an item on behalf of
someone else when other people will be losing out as a result ("ha'Tofes
l'Ba'al Chov b'Makom she'Chav le'Acherim"). The Mishnah describes a case in
which someone gathers Pe'ah and says that he is gathering it on behalf of a
specific poor person. Rebbi Eliezer maintains that one may be Zocheh it for
the poor person, while the Rabanan say that he must give it to the first
poor person that he finds. The Gemara rejects this proof and says that even
according to the Rabanan, it could be that a person normally *is* able to be
Zocheh for someone else "b'Makom she'Chav le'Acherim," but the case of Pe'ah
is different; one cannot gather Pe'ah for a specific poor person because of
a special verse in the Torah ("Lo Selaket le'Ani;" Vayikra 23:22).
Similarly, it could be that Rebbi Eliezer maintains that, normally, a person
*cannot* be Zocheh something on behalf of someone else "b'Makom she'Chav
le'Acherim," but in the case of Pe'ah, the person can be Mafkir all of his
own possessions, making himself a poor person, and then he may take the
Pe'ah for himself. Since he could take it for himself, he may be Zocheh it
on behalf of someone else. Only when he is unable to take the Pe'ah for
himself, may he not be Zocheh it on behalf of someone else.
The Gemara adds that Rebbi Eliezer does not learn from the verse, "Lo
Selaket le'Ani," that a person cannot be Zocheh the Pe'ah for a specific
poor person, but rather he learns that a poor person may not keep the Pe'ah
that comes from his own field.
When RASHI explains the Mishnah, he explains that the person who gathered
Pe'ah on behalf of the poor person was a field-owner who was wealthy. The
wealthy field-owner gathered the Pe'ah of his own field on behalf of a
specific poor person.
(a) Why does Rashi explain that the person who gathered the Pe'ah for the
poor person is both wealthy, and the owner of the field?
Rashi is trying to explain why the person could not take the Pe'ah for
himself. Since he is the owner, and he is wealthy, he cannot take Pe'ah for
himself. Why, though, does Rashi have to say that he is both the owner and
that he is wealthy? Even if the person who owned the field was poor, he
still could not be Zocheh the Pe'ah for another poor person! Conversely, if
the person is wealthy, even if he was not the owner of the field, he could
not take the Pe'ah for himself! How does Rashi know that the Mishnah is
referring to someone who is both the field-owner and who is wealthy?
(b) Rashi himself (Bava Metzia 9b) emphatically rejects the possibility that
the person who gathered the Pe'ah on behalf of a poor person is the owner of
the field! Rashi writes that if the person who gathered the Pe'ah for the
poor person is the owner, then Rebbi Eliezer would *not* have permitted him
to be Zocheh for the poor person, according to the Gemara's conclusion. The
Gemara concludes that the reason why Rebbi Eliezer permits the wealthy man
to be Zocheh the Pe'ah for a specific poor person is because the wealthy man
could be Mafkir all of his possessions and take the Pe'ah for himself. The
owner of a field, though, can never take Pe'ah from his own field, because
Rebbi Eliezer agrees that "Lo Selaket le'Ani" teaches that a poor person
cannot take Pe'ah from his own field! How does Rashi here answer this
question?
ANSWERS:
(a) The reason why Rashi needs to explain that the person gathering the
Pe'ah was wealthy is because the Gemara here says that when he is Mafkir his
property "he will become a poor person and be able to take Pe'ah," implying
that the reason he could not take Pe'ah for himself until now is because he
was wealthy.
The reason why Rashi says that he is the owner of the field might be because
the Mishnah does not explain why the person cannot take the Pe'ah for
himself (it does not say "a wealthy person who collects Pe'ah" on behalf of
a poor person, but just "one who collects Pe'ah" on behalf of a poor
person"). This implies that the reason he may not collect the Pe'ah for
himself is not because he is wealthy, but -- regardless of the amount of
money that he has -- he cannot take the Pe'ah for himself because he owns
the field.
(b) The ROSH (on the Mishnah in Pe'ah) explains that although the owner of a
field may not gather Pe'ah for himself from his own field, if he is Mafkir
the field, the field is no longer his and he is permitted to take Pe'ah from
it just like he is permitted to take Pe'ah from any other field.
Accordingly, the owner of the field may be Zocheh the Pe'ah on behalf of a
specific poor person since he is able to be Mafkir his field and take the
Pe'ah for himself.
Rashi in Bava Metzia, though, rejects this approach. Perhaps Rashi considers
it unfeasible to suggest that making one's field Hefker can permit a person
to take the Pe'ah that was separated *before* he made his field Hefker. The
verse prohibits the person who owned the field at the time that the Pe'ah
was separated and declared as Pe'ah from *ever* taking the Pe'ah that he
himself separated.
Rashi in our Sugya seems to take a different approach than the Rosh. Rashi
(DH l'Hazhir) explains that, according to Rebbi Eliezer, the verse does not
teach that a poor person may not *take* Pe'ah from his field, but rather it
teaches that a poor person may not *exempt* himself from separating Pe'ah
from his field. Once he does separate Pe'ah, though, the verse does not
prohibit him from collecting that Pe'ah; even if he is not Mafkir his field,
perhaps the poor owner of the field will be permitted to take Pe'ah that he
separated from his own field.
Rashi in Bava Metzia (9b, DH Mi she'Liket), however, explains that the verse
indeed teaches that a poor person may not gather Pe'ah for himself from his
own field. That is why Rashi explains there that the owner of the field can
never gather Pe'ah on behalf of a specific person (since he cannot collect
his own Pe'ah even after he is Mafkir his own field).
(The RASH on the Mishnah in Pe'ah points out that the Yerushalmi implies
that an owner of a field *is permitted* to gather the Pe'ah for the poor
person.)
12b
2) THE ELEMENT OF "CHOV" OF A DIVORCE FOR A WOMAN
QUESTION: The Gemara discusses the argument between Rebbi Meir and the
Rabanan in the Mishnah (11b) concerning whether one who appointed a
Shali'ach to bring a Get Shichrur to his Eved may retract the Shelichus.
Rebbi Meir maintains that freedom is a Chov, a liability, for the Eved, and,
therefore, just like a Shali'ach may not be Zocheh a Get Ishah on behalf of
one's wife without her knowledge, one may not be Zocheh a Get Shichrur on
behalf of an Eved. The Rabanan counter that freedom is a Zechus for the
Eved, because he does not necessarily receive Mezonos from his master even
while he is an Eved. The Rabanan agree that the divorce of a woman is a Chov
for her, because "it prohibits her to Terumah (if she is married to a Kohen)
and it causes her to lose her husband's financial support."
The Rabanan in the Beraisa here are presenting two arguments to explain why
it is a Chov for a woman to be divorced: not only does she lose Mezonos, but
she loses Terumah as well. In the Mishnah (11b), also, Rebbi Meir's words
imply that one of the reasons the Rabanan consider it a Chov for the woman
to be divorced is because she is losing Terumah (see TOSFOS 13a, DH u'Mah
Ilu).
Why do the Rabanan note the fact that the wife loses her Terumah when she is
divorced? This reason applies only to the wife of a Kohen. The other reason
(the fact that she loses financial support), in contrast, explains explain
why the divorce of *every* woman is a Chov! What could the Rabanan possibly
be adding by saying that her loss of Terumah gives the divorce the status of
a Chov?
ANSWER: If the only reason a divorce is considered a Chov to the woman is
because she loses Mezonos, then a divorce should not be a Chov for an
Arusah, for whom the husband does not provide Mezonos (see Kesuvos 57a).
Since she does not receive Mezonos, an Arusah does not lose Mezonos upon
being divorced. The fact that after she becomes married (with Nesu'in) she
is able to receive Mezonos does not make Erusin into a Zechus, like Rashi
says earlier (10a, DH u'Parchinan).
The Rabanan had to mention the Chov of losing Terumah in order to explain
why a divorce is not a Zechus for a woman who is an Arusah, since the
divorce permits her to become married to any person she wants, and it does
not cause her to lose Mezonos. The Rabanan explain that if the husband is a
Kohen, then the divorce of an Arusah is a Chov because she loses the right
to eat Terumah.
This answer, however, needs explanation. Just like an Arusah does not
receive Mezonos, an Arusah is also not permitted to eat Terumah! Even after
12 months have passed and her Arus has not yet married her (with Nesu'in) --
at which time he is obligated to give her Mezonos -- she still may not eat
Terumah (according to the Mishnah Acharonah, Kesuvos 57b)! The Gemara in
Kesuvos (57b) points out, though, that there are two reasons why an Arusah
is not permitted, mid'Rabanan, to eat Terumah. According to Ula, we are
afraid that she might feed the Terumah to her brothers and sisters (who are
not Kohanim) since she is still living in her father's home. According to
Rav Shmuel bar Yehudah, we are afraid of "Simpon" (a "revocation" of the
marriage) -- the husband might discover later that the woman has a blemish,
making the Kidushin a "Mekach Ta'us" (an acquisition in error). The
betrothal will be annulled retroactively, and thus retroactively the woman
will have transgressed the Isur d'Oraisa of eating Terumah. The Gemara there
explains that there is one situation in which an Arusah may eat Terumah:
where the husband accepts upon himself that even if the woman has a blemish
he wants the Kidushin to remain valid. In such a situation, the Arusah may
eat Terumah, since there no longer is a fear of "Simpon." If 12 months have
passed and the husband has begun to give Mezonos to his Arusah, then we are
not concerned with the problem that she might feed the Terumah to her family
members, because after 12 months she eats in a separate place. Therefore,
according to all opinions, there is a situation in which an Arusah may eat
Terumah. In such a situation it would be considered a Chov for the woman to
receive a Get, because she is losing her Terumah.
Next daf
|