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1)

(a) We just quoted the Beraisa which discusses someone who ate the Gid ha'Nasheh of a Beheimah Teme'ah.
What problem do we have with Rebbi Shimon, who exempts him from Malkos, assuming that he holds ...

1. ... 'Yesh be'Gidin be'Nosen Ta'am'?
2. ... 'Ein be'Gidin be'Nosen Ta'am'?

(b) We answer that he holds 'Ein be'Gidin be'Nosen Ta'am'.
Then how will he explain the P'tur from Malkos for having eaten Gid ha'Nasheh (based on the Pasuk "al-Kein Lo Yochlu B'nei Yisrael es Gid ha'Nasheh")?

(a) Rav Yehudah Amar Rav cites a Machlokes between Rebbi Meir and the Chachamim.
According to Rebbi Meir, someone who eats a Gid ha'Nasheh of a Neveilah receives two sets of Malkos.
What do the Chachamim say?

(b) For which Isur does he receive Malkos, according to them?

(c) Why, according to Rebbi Meir, does he receive Malkos for Neveilah as well, even assuming that he holds 'Ein Isur Chal al Isur?

(a) Even the Chachamim will agree, Rav Yehudah adds, that someone who eats the Gid ha'Nasheh of an Olah or of a Shor ha'Niskal (e.g. that gored a person to death) receives two sets of Malkos. Why is that?

(b) In what way are Olah and Shor ha'Niskal more stringent?

(c) How does Rava know that the Chachamim will concede that 'Isur Chal al Isur' by Isur Kollel if it also Chamur?

(d) Who must the Chachamim then be?

(a) In the Mishnah in Zevachim, the Tana Kama declares Chayav Malkos, a Tamei person who eats Kodesh, irrespective of whether the Kodesh is Tahor or Tamei. What is a Tahor person Chayav if he eats Tamei Kodshim be'Meizid?

(b) What does Rebbi Yossi Hagelili say?

(c) How do the Rabbanan query Rebbi Yossi Hagelili?

(d) What do we comment on their query?

(a) Rava explains that in fact, Rebbi Yossi Hagelili will agree that in the case cited by the Rabbanan, the Tamei person is Chayav.
Why is that?

(b) Then in which case does he render him Patur?

(c) Seeing as we hold 'Ein Isur Chal al Isur', why do the Rabbanan render him Chayav, even though the Tum'as Basar came first?

(d) And what does Rebbi Yossi Hagelili hold?

(a) Based on what we just learned, what is the problem with Rebbi Yossi Hageleili's current ruling? Why should the sinner be Chayav anyway?

(b) On what grounds do we refute this Kashya? What Chumra does Tum'as Basar possess over Tum'as ha'Guf?

7)

(a) According to Rebbi Shimon in a Beraisa (quoted in Shevu'os), someone who eats Neveilah on Yom Kipur be'Shogeg is Patur from a Chatas. How does that explain why Rav Yehudah Amar Rav cannot be speaking according to him?

(b) The Beraisa discusses someone who performed be'Shogeg, a Melachah on Yom Kipur that falls on Shabbos. According to Rebbi Akiva, he is Chayav one Korban (see Tosfos DH 'Rebbi Akiva').
What does Rebbi Yossi Hagelili say, based on the Pesukim in Emor "Shabbos Hi" and "Yom ha'Kipurim Hu"?

(c) What makes ...

1. ... Shabbos an Isur Mosif compared to Yom Kipur?
2. ... Yom Kipur an Isur Kolel compared to Shabbos?

(d) Why is it important to know this, according to Rebbi Yossi Hagelili? Why would one not be Chayav two Chata'os anyway, since they both take effect be'Vas Achas (Isur Bas Achas)?

(a) What Kashya does this Beraisa now pose on our previous interpretation of Rebbi Yossi Hagelili?

(b) Ravin quoting Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Chanina inverts the opinions (so that Rebbi Yossi Hagelili is only Mechayav one Korban).
How else might he have solved the problem?

(c) On what grounds might we alternatively have explained that the Isur of Shabbos precedes that of Yom Kipur, and Rebbi Yossi Hagelili is Mechayav two Chata'os because Yom Kipur is an Isur Kolel?

(d) And on what grounds do we reject this explanation?

(a) Rebbi Yochanan is quoted as saying that according to Ravin's amendment in the Beraisa, if someone performed a Melachah with Shigegas Shabbos and Zadon Yom ha'Kipurim, according to Rebbi Yossi Hagelili, he will be Chayav a Chatas.
What does he say in the reverse case?

(b) How does Abaye explain this? On what grounds does he hold that when Rebbi Yossi Hagelili ruled 'Eino Chayav Ela Achas', he meant because of Shabbos?

(c) Why is he then Patur if he was Shogeg on Yom Kipur and Meizid on Shabbos?

(d) Why does Rava disagree with Abaye's explanation?

(a) Why did they do that? What happened that year?

(b) What does this have to do with Rebbi Yossi Hagelili?

(c) How does this explain Rebbi Yochanan?

(d) What did Ravin say when he arrived from Eretz Yisrael?

(a) What do the Chachamim in a Beraisa prove from the fact that the Torah writes in Vayishlach "al-Kein Lo Yochlu B'nei Yisrael es Gid ha'Nasheh", rather than "B'nei Ya'akov"?

(b) How will we reconcile the Rabbanan with the Pasuk in Vayigash (in connection with Ya'akov and his family going down to Egypt) cited by Rava "Vayis'u *B'nei Yisrael* es Ya'akov Avihem"?

(c) Rav Acha b'rei de'Rava asked Rav Ashi why the Gid ha'Nasheh did not then become prohibited from that time on.
So what if it had been? What is his Kashya?

(d) What did Rav Ashi reply?

(a) According to Rebbi Yehudah and Rebbi Elazar in a Beraisa, Eiver min ha'Chai applies to Beheimah, Chayah and Of, both Teme'in and Tehorin. What do the Chachamim say?

(b) Rebbi Yochanan explains that both opinions derive their rulings from the same Pasuk in Re'ei, "Rak Chazak Levilti Achol ha'Dam, ki ha'Dam Hu ha'Nefesh, ve'Lo Sochal ha'Nefesh im ha'Basar".
Which part of this Pasuk pertains to Eiver min ha'Chai?

(c) What do ...

1. ... Rebbi Yehudah and Rebbi Elazar learn from "Rak Chazak Levilti Achol ha'Dam ... ve'Lo Sochal ha'Nefesh im ha'Basar"?
2. ... the Rabbanan learn from "ve'Lo Sochal ha'Nefesh im ha'Basar"?

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