Previous daf

1)

(a) What did Rav Idi bar Avin ask Abaye regarding Rav Nachman's ruling - 'Beitzah be'Shishim ... '?

(b) How did Abaye reconcile Rav Nachman with the popular saying?

(c) How will he then explain the Beraisa which forbids Kasher eggs that were cooked with Tamei eggs be'Nosen Ta'am?

(d) What problem do we have with this from the Seifa, which specifically forbids eggs that were cooked with an egg containing a chick?

(a) We answer by explaining that the Seifa comes to explain the Reisha. How do we try to prove that?

(b) How do we refute the proof? Why might it be necessary for the Seifa to reveal that the Reisha is in fact, referring to a plain Tamei egg?

(c) How did Rav Ashi intend to assess Shishim when a k'Zayis of Cheilev fell into a basket of Basar?

(d) What objection did the Rabbanan raise to that?

(a) What did Mar bar Rav Ashi intend to rule when half a k'Zayis of Cheilev fell into a basket of Basar?

(b) What objection did Rav Ashi raise based on the Din of Chazti Shi'ur?

(c) What would he have said had Chatzi Shi'ur been mi'de'Rabbanan?

(a) What did Rav Sh'man bar Aba, citing ... a certain Zakein called Rebbi Ya'akov, quote the Bei Nesi'a as saying, beginning with 'Beitzah be'Shishim Asurah'?

(b) On what grounds did Rebbi Zeira admonish Rav Sh'man bar Aba, based on the same statement of the two Gedolei ha'Dor Rebbi Ya'akov bar Idi and Rebbi Shmuel bar Nachmeini? Why did he consider him presumptuous?

(c) Which great Posek were the two Gedolei ha'Dor quoting?

(d) Rebbi Chelbo Amar Rav Huna however, resolves the She'eilah of the two Gedolei ha'Dor.
What does he conclude?

(a) When someone came before Raban Gamliel, son of Rebbi, he cited his father who permitted forty-seven eggs that were cooked together with one Tamei one. So what did he himself rule?

(b) What parallel figures did Rebbi Shimon bar Rebbi give in a similar testimony?

(c) How else might we interpret these two cases? What might Raban Gamliel and Rebbi Shimon bar Rebbi have been coming to teach us?

(d) When someone came before Rebbi Chiya, the latter exclaimed that there the Heter did not comprise Sheloshim, implying that if it did, it would be Bateil.
How did Rebbi Chanina explain that, in light of the Shi'ur Shishim that is always required?

(a) When Rebbi Chiya bar Aba Amar Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi in the name of bar Kapara stated that all Isurin in the Torah require Shishim (see Tosfos DH 've'Iba'i Lehu'), Rebbi Shmuel bar Rav Yitzchak countered with a statement by Rav Asi.
What did Rav Asi Amar Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi in the name of bar Kapara say?

(b) Are 'Shishim' and 'Me'ah' a Kula or a Chumra?

(c) What is their common source, as we shall now see?

(d) What happens to ...

1. ... the Zero'a Besheilah (the cooked foreleg) of the ram of the Shalmei Nazir ?
2. ... rest of the ram?

7)

(a) The Tana Kama of the Beraisa interprets the word "Besheilah" as whole (see Tosfos DH 'Ein ... ').
How does Rebbi Shimon interpret it?

(b) Assuming that both Tana'im rquire the Gid ha'Nasheh to be cooked together with the ram, what is then the basis of their Machlokes?

(c) According to the second Lashon, both Tana'im agree that one detaches the Gid ha'Nasheh before cooking the Zero'a.
What is then the basis of their Machlokes?

(d) What problem does cooking them together create?

(a) According to whom do Rebbi Shmuel bar Rav Yitzchak (Shishim) and Rav Asi Amar Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi Mishum bar Kapara (Me'ah) argue, in the ...

1. ... first Lashon?
2. ... second Lashon?

(b) If Rebbi Shmuel bar Rav Yitzchak reckons the bones and the Basar, what does Rav Asi Amar Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi hold?

(c) What creates the distinction between the two opinions?

(a) We learned in a Beraisa (in connection with the Zero'a Besheilah) 'Zehu Heter ha'Ba mi'Chelal Isur'.
What Kashya does this pose on the current Sugya?

(b) Abaye answers that the Beraisa goes according to Rebbi Yehudah.
Which Chumra of Rebbi Yehudah is the Tana then referring to?

(c) How does Rebbi Yehudah learn from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos "Ve'lakach mi'Dam ha'Par u'mi'Dam ha'Sa'ir" that Miyn be'Miyno Lo Bateil?

(a) Why does Rebbi Yehudah prefer to learn from the blood of the Par and of thes Sa'ir that Miyn be'Miyno is not Bateil than from Zero'a Besheilah, that it is?

(b) Then why does he learn Bitul be'Shishim or be'Me'ah of Miyn be'she'Eino Miyno from Gid ha'Nasheh?

(c) According to Rava, we need the Pasuk to permit Shishim or Me'ah regarding 'Ta'am ke'Ikar'.
When is 'Ta'am ke'Ikar' then Asur and when is it permitted?

(d) What will Rava do with the D'rashah "Mishras", from which the Sugya in Pesachim learns 'Ta'am ke'Ikar"?

(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Tzav (in connection with a Chatas) "Kol Asher Yiga bi'Vesarah Yikdash"?

(b) What are the ramifications of this ruling, assuming that a Shelamim touched a ...

1. ... a Kasher Chatas (and one of them was hot)?
2. ... a Pasul Chatas?

(c) We prefer to learn from Chatas than from Zero'a Besheilah, because the latter is a Chidush, as we explained earlier (regarding the blood of the Par and the Chatas).
In that case, how can we learn even the Din of Shishim and Me'ah by Chulin from the latter?

Next daf