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1)

(a) We learned in our Mishnah 'va'Chachamim Omrim, Maga Tereifah Shechutah', implying that a Tereifah Shechutah is Metamei.
How does Shmuel's father reconcile this with the fact that it is not?

(b) How did Rebbi Meir in a Beraisa, according to Rava (or Kadi)'s emendment, counter the Rabanan ...

1. ... who declared Tahor a limb (that the fetus stuck out) due to the Shechitah of its mother?
2. ... when they replied that from the Shechitah of a Tereifah we can learn that sometimes a Shechitah disposes of the Tum'ah, without permitting the animal to be eaten?

(c) And how did the Rabanan counter Rebbi Meir from the opening Mishnah in the Perek 'Chotech min ha'Ubar she'be'Me'eha'?

(d) All this is based on Rava's emendment of the Beraisa. What proof do we have that Rava's text is correct?

(a) What does Resh Lakish mean when he states that just as Rebbi Meir and the Rabanan argue over 'Ubrin', so too, do they argue over Eivarin?

(b) What does Rebbi Yochanan say?

(c) How does Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Chanina explain Rebbi Yochanan? What makes Eivarin worse than Ubrin, according to the Rabanan?

(a) We query the current version of the Machlokes between Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish however, from the Beraisa that we cited earlier, where Rebbi Meir said 'Lo, Im Tiharah Shechitas Tereifah Osah *ve'es ha'Eiver ha'Meduldal bah*, Davar she'Gufah ... '.
How will Resh Lakish explain the Beraisa (seeing as, according to him, Rebbi Meir does not permit either the Ubar or the Eiver ha'Meduldal)?

(b) What is the problem with this according to Rebbi Yochanan?

(c) We therefore reword the Machlokes.
We cite Resh Lakish like we did before, but how do we now cite Rebbi Yochanan?

(d) What reason does Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Chanina now give to explain why Rebbi Meir is more lenient in the case of Eiver than he is by Ubar?

4)

(a) Everyone agrees, says Rav Yitzchak bar Yosef Amar Rebbi Yochanan, that 'Misah Osah Nipul ve'Ein Shechitah Osah Nipul'.
Why can Rebbi Yochanan not be referring to the case of Ubar?

(b) What does he mean when he says 'Misah Osah Nipul?

(c) What are the ramifications of this ruling?

(d) What point is Rebbi Yochanan making?

(a) Rebbi Meir learns in a Mishnah in 'ha'Or ve'ha'Rotav' (in connection with an animal with a loose limb and loose flesh) that should the animal die, the flesh requires Hechsher Lekabel Tum'ah.
What does he say about the loose limb?

(b) If the Tana held 'Ein Misah Osah Nipul, what would be the Din regarding ...

1. ... Hechsher?
2. ... Tum'ah? Under what heading would it fall?

(c) Who argues with Rebbi Meir in this point?

(a) In another Mishnah there, Rebbi Meir says (regarding the same animal) 'Nishchetah Beheimah, Huchsheru be'Dameha'.
What does that prove?

(b) On what grounds does Rebbi Shimon disagree?

(c) What is now the Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan from both of the above Mishnahs?

(d) How do we establish 'Huchsheru' in answer to the second Kashya?

(a) How do we reconcile the previous answer with the fact that 'Huchsheru' is written in the plural?

(b) Why does the Tana find it necessary to mention Basar that comes off the Eiver ha'Meduldal? Why might we otherwise have thought that it does not require Hechsher, even though Basar from the Shechted animal does?

(a) Why did Rav Yosef advocate following the opinion of Rav Yitzchak bar Yosef in Rebbi Yochanan?

(b) Why did he find it necessary to say this? What was he coming to preclude?

(c) The Beraisa forbids an Eiver ha'Meduldal and Basar ha'Meduldalin of a Beheimah, Chayah or Of that one subsequently Shechted, based on the Pasuk in Mishpatim "u'Basar ba'Sadeh Tereifah Li Sochelu".
What does Rabah bar bar Chanah Amar Rebbi Yochanan comment on that?

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