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Chulin, 20
CHULIN 19-20 - Two weeks of study material have been dedicated by Mrs.
Estanne Abraham Fawer to honor the fourth Yahrzeit of her father, Reb
Mordechai ben Eliezer Zvi (Weiner), who passed away 18 Teves 5760. May the
merit of supporting and advancing Talmud study during the week of his
Yahrzeit serve as an Iluy for his Neshamah.
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1) THE MEANING OF "ROVIN"
OPINIONS: The sons of Rebbi Chiya said (19b) that the Mitzvah of Melikah is
done by pulling the Simanim to the back of the neck (where Melikah must take
place) and cutting the Simanim there with the fingernail. Rebbi Yanai
challenged their statement from the words of the Mishnah (19b), and he said,
"The 'Rovin' should accept the refutation from the Mishnah...." What is the
meaning of the word, "Rovin," which Rebbi Yanai used to describe the sons of
Rebbi Chiya)?
(a) RASHI explains that "Rovin" means "youths" (see Tamid 1:1, Sukah 5b,
Chagigah 13b).
(b) The PNEI MOSHE (quoted by RAV REUVEN MARGOLIOS in L'CHEKER SHEMOS
V'KINUYIM, p. 55) suggests another explanation for the word based on the
Yerushalmi (Chalah 4:4, quoted by TOSFOS on Chulin 7a, DH v'Hitir). The
Yerushalmi teaches that the "Rovin" annulled the practice of separating
Terumah from produce that was grown outside of Eretz Yisrael (see Insights
to Chulin 6:5). The Yerushalmi continues and says, "Who are the 'Rovin'?
They are people from Turgema (Turkey)."
The Pnei Moshe explains that these sages were Yehudah and Chizkiyah, the
sons of Rebbi Chiya, whom Rebbi Yanai calls "Rovin" in our Gemara, as well
as in the Yerushalmi Chagigah (3:4). Apparently, "Rov" was the name of the
district in Turkey from which these outstanding scholars came. (We find that
Torah scholars came from this district even in the days of the Ge'onim, as
Rav Reuven Margolios points out.) This thesis is reinforced by the fact that
Chizkiyah, the son of Rebbi Chiya, is occasionally referred to as "Chizkiyah
the Turk" (Bereishis Rabah 48:11).
This sheds light on another ambiguous title that is used by the Yerushalmi.
The Yerushalmi often refers to Rebbi Chiya and Rebbi Oshiya as "Rebbi Chiya
Rava" and "Rebbi Oshiya Rava." Rav Reuven Margolios suggests that "Rava" (or
"Rova") may be the singular form of "Rovin," meaning "from the district of
Rov." (Rebbi Oshiya indeed is called "Rebbi Oshiya of Turkey" in Bereishis
Rabah 51:9.)
Rav Reuven Margolios adds that this also explains the cryptic words of the
Tikunei Zohar Chadash (98a) that states, "Anyone known as 'Rebbi' comes from
Eretz Yisrael, anyone known as 'Rav' comes from Bavel, anyone known as
'Rava' comes from other lands." Where do we find the name "Rava" used as a
title of respect, and from which lands do its bearers originate? Perhaps
"Rava" is a title given to the scholars of Turkey, referring both to their
stature as scholars and to the name of their district of origin, "Rov"!
2) DOING "MELIKAH" WITH A TOOTH
QUESTION: The Gemara quotes the Mishnah (19b) that says that whatever is
valid for Shechitah is invalid for Melikah, and whatever is valid for
Melikah is invalid for Shechitah." The Gemara suggests that this statement
refers to using a tooth or a nail for Shechitah.
RASHI explains that this refers to a tooth or nail that is attached. They
are invalid for the *Shechitah* of an animal because they are "Mechubar,"
and the Mishnah earlier (15b) teaches that something that is "Mechubar" is
invalid for Shechitah. For *Melikah*, however, a nail is not only valid, but
it *must* be used.
What, though, does the Gemara mean when it mentions that a "tooth" may not
be used for Shechitah, but may be used for Melikah? Melikah cannot be done
with a tooth; it must be done with the nail on the right hand! How can a
tooth be used for Melikah?
AMSWERS:
(a) RASHI and TOSFOS answer that the Gemara mentions a tooth only because a
tooth is mentioned in the Mishnah (15b) together with a nail with regard to
the laws of Shechitah. In truth, though, a tooth cannot be used for Melikah,
just as it cannot be used for Shechitah.
(b) In his second answer, TOSFOS suggests that perhaps the requirement to
use the right hand for Melikah does not exclude using a tooth, but rather it
excludes only using the left hand. Using one's tooth to do Melikah, though,
*is* acceptable. He proves this from the laws of Chalitzah. The act of
Chalitzah (untying the shoe) may not be done with the left hand, and yet it
may be done with the teeth.
The TZAFNAS PANE'ACH (Hilchos Kil'ayim, p. 3a) explains that the two
opinions in Tosfos depending upon whether the law regarding Melikah requires
that it must be done specifically with the right hand, or whether the law
requires that it *not* be done with the left hand. The difference between
the two approaches is whether or not Melikah may be done with a tooth. If
the right hand *must* be used, then a tooth will be invalid (as RASHI and
TOSFOS understand in the first answer). If, however, the Halachah does not
require use of the right hand as long as the left hand is not used, then a
tooth may be used for Melikah, since it is not the left hand. This is
consistent with the second answer of Tosfos. (Z. Wainstein)
3) "IKUR SIMANIM"
OPINIONS: Rebbi Yirmeyah in the name of Shmuel says that one may perform
Melikah to a bird at the areas of the back of its neck that correspond to
the areas at which one may perform Shechitah to an animal (in the front of
its neck). The Gemara infers from this statement that the converse is true
as well -- any area that is invalid for Shechitah is also invalid for
Melikah. The Gemara asks what this inference teaches us. It cannot be
teaching that "Ikur Simanim" (tearing out the Simanim) disqualifies Melikah,
because Rami bar Yechezkel teaches that "Ikur Simanim" does not apply to
birds.
What is the "Ikur Simanim" that the Gemara here mentions? Is it the same as
the Pesul of "Ikur" that is one of the five main laws of Shechitah (9a, 28a,
and elsewhere)?
(a) RASHI earlier (9a, DH Shehiyah Derasah) explains that the Halachah
l'Moshe mi'Sinai of "Ikur" teaches that tearing apart the Kaneh or Veshet
invalidates the Shechitah and makes the animal become a Neveilah. It does
not seem to be logical, though, that the Gemara here would think that Shmuel
is teaching us a Halachah about tearing out an animal's Simanim by stating
what areas are *valid* for Shechitah and Melikah. Rather, it seems clear
that the "Ikur Simanim" mentioned here refers to cutting the Simanim in the
improper place, in a way that causes the animal to become a Tereifah (but
not a Neveilah). Shmuel is teaching us that just as an animal is not Kosher
if the Simanim are slaughtered out of the proper place, a bird, too, is not
Kosher if Melikah is performed out of the proper place. TOSFOS (9a, DH Kulhu
Taninhu) understands that according to Rashi, this type of "Ikur Simanim"
makes the animal a Tereifah.
TOSFOS here (DH Ileima) asks a number questions on Rashi's explanation.
According to Rashi, the Pesul of "Ikur Simanim" mentioned in the Gemara here
causes the animal to become a Tereifah. It is difficult, however, to learn
the Gemara this way. Why does Shmuel need to teach us that "Ikur Simanim"
invalidates the Melikah of a bird as well as the Shechitah of an animal? We
already know that any blemish that constitutes a Tereifah in the case of a
bird should similarly constitute a Tereifah in the case of an animal, and we
have no reason to assume otherwise. We know that the laws of Tereifos apply
to birds just as they apply to animals!
In addition, why does the Gemara say that the opinion that "Ikur Simanim"
does not apply to birds follows only the opinion that a bird does not have
to undergo Shechitah according to Torah law (but rather it suffices to do
Nechirah, tearing the Simanim lengthwise)? What does one opinion have to do
with the other? The problem of "Ikur Simanim" is that the animal becomes a
*Tereifah*, while the opinion that a bird does not need Shechitah means that
it is not a *Neveilah* if Nechirah is done to it. The opinion that holds
that a bird does need Shechitah (and becomes a Neveilah if Nechirah is done
to it) can also hold that "Ikur Simanim" does not make it a Tereifah!
(b) Tosfos quotes the BEHAG who explains that "Ikur Simanim" means that the
animal becomes a *Neveilah* if the Kaneh or Veshet was cut after being
ripped out of its natural place in a manner that does not make the animal a
Tereifah. This is a special Halachah that teaches that the animal becomes a
Neveilah if it was slaughtered with its Siman out of place. The Behag
understands that before the animal is slaughtered it is *not* called a
*Tereifah* even though its Simanim are out of place. According to the Behag,
the Gemara is suggesting that the Halachah l'Moshe mi'Sinai of "Ikur"
applies to birds as well. The Gemara then says that this is not true, as we
know that Rami bar Yechezkel learns that "Ikur Simanim" does not apply to
birds.
The RITVA explains that Rashi also understands that our Gemara is discussing
the case of the Behag. Although Rashi earlier (9a) explains "Ikur"
differently (as we mentioned above), Rashi holds that both cases are cases
of "Ikur Simanim." This obviously answers Tosfos' questions on Rashi.
If Rashi agrees to the Behag, then why does he describe "Ikur" as tearing
apart one of the Simanim, and not the same way as the Behag (cutting a Siman
that was out of place)? The SHITAH MEKUBETZES explains that the other four
laws of Shechitah involve actions done by the Shochet that make the animal
not Kosher. This type of act better describes the case of tearing apart the
Siman, as opposed to a "slipped Siman" that is cut out of place. (See also
Tosfos on 9a, who asks this as a question on the Behag's view.)
There is an obvious Halachic difference between Tosfos' understanding of
Rashi and the Ritva's understanding of Rashi. According to Tosfos, Rashi
maintains that an animal with a slipped Siman is a Tereifah even before it
is slaughtered. According to the Ritva, Rashi agrees with the Behag that
this type of "Ikur Simanim" is a problem only during Shechitah, and
therefore the animal is not a Tereifah at all.
This sheds light on a comment of the REMA (YD 24:15). The Rema says that
"Ikur Simanim" does not make the animal a Tereifah while it is alive.
Rather, it merely makes it impossible to perform Shechitah to the animal.
Since the animal, while it is alive, is a Kosher animal, its milk (from a
cow) or eggs (from a bird) may be used while it is alive, even though we
know that its Simanim have moved out of place in such a way that makes it
impossible to perform Shechitah.
It appears that the Rema is ruling like the Behag (see TAZ and BEIS MEIR
there). However, it is also possible that the Rema learned like the opinion
of the Ritva (which answers Tosfos' questions on Rashi), who explains that
even Rashi agrees that the animal is not a Tereifah while it is alive. This
would mean that everyone agrees that this animal is not a Tereifah. It is
interesting to note that the TEVU'OS SHOR (24:26) comments that the SHULCHAN
ARUCH (YD 24:15) does not say that the milk and eggs are permitted, because
he holds that one should be stringent and follow the opinion of Tosfos in
understanding Rashi, who maintains that such an animal is a Tereifah while
it is alive. (Y. Montrose)
20b
4) "MELIKAH" PERFORMED WITH A KNIFE
OPINIONS: The Gemara rules that if Melikah was done with a knife, the bird
is a Neveilah. According to one Amora, the bird is a Neveilah because
cutting the bird's neck with a knife constitutes "Chaladah," inserting the
knife into the middle of the thickness of the neck and cutting outwards from
there.
Why, though, is Melikah with a knife considered "Chaladah," when one does
not actually perform the act of "Chaladah"?
(a) RASHI explains that "Chaladah" means that the knife is not visible at
the time that it cuts the Simanim. When the knife is cutting from the back
of the neck to the front (in the manner in which Melikah is done), it is
hidden between the vertebrae at the time that it cuts the Simanim. TOSFOS
points out that according to this reasoning, if the knife was wider than the
neck, then there would be no problem of Chaladah and the Melikah would not
be disqualified (since the knife can be seen from the back).
(b) TOSFOS and the RITVA explain that cutting the neck from the back to the
front, as opposed to cutting it from the front to the back, constitutes
"Chaladah." (Z. Wainstein)
5) THE STATUS OF A BIRD AFTER ONE "SIMAN" WAS CUT WITHOUT "SHECHITAH"
OPINIONS: Ze'iri states that when the neckbone (Mafrekes) of an animal is
cut together with most of the flesh above it, the animal is considered a
Neveilah (and is Metamei), even if the Simanim are then slaughtered
properly. Since the animal has already been rendered a Neveilah, it does not
help to cut the Simanim. Rava questions Ze'iri's statement. We know that
Melikah is done to a bird at the area in the back of the neck. This means
that the cut of Melikah first penetrates the neckbone and most of the flesh
before the neckbone, and only afterwards does it cut the Simanim. According
to Ze'iri, the cutting of the Simanim is being done on a bird which has
already been killed, and thus Melikah should be invalid!
Abaye asks why Rava is bothered only with Ze'iri's statement. The Gemara
itself (21a) says that when one performs Melikah to an Olas ha'Of, one must
cut both Simanim. If cutting one Siman already kills the bird (and suffices
for Shechitah, or Melikah of a bird), then there should be no need to cut
the second Siman, as the second Siman is being cut on a dead bird!
Why is the bird considered dead after the first Siman is cut?
(a) RASHI (DH v'Chi Mesah) explains that the bird is considered dead,
because it will definitely die after one Siman is cut.
The RAN and the RASHBA have difficulty with Rashi's explanation. The Gemara
later (30a and 121b) teaches that when one cuts two Simanim (not in the
proper manner of Shechitah) the animal is not yet Metamei as a Neveilah, but
rather it is considered to be alive until it actually dies (or until its
head is entirely severed). How can Rashi say that a bird is considered dead
(and Melikah completed) after one Siman is cut, if, with regard to an
animal, even when both Simanim are cut the animal is not considered dead
yet?
(b) The Ran and the Rashba therefore explain Abaye's question differently.
Rava's difficulty with Ze'iri's statement is what exactly the Melikah of the
Simanim accomplishes once most of the flesh on top of the neckbone, and the
neckbone itself, are cut. Abaye challenges Rava from the concept of Melikas
Olas ha'Of. Even if we say that Ze'iri's ruling is incorrect, we will still
have difficulty with the concept of Olas ha'Of. In the case of Melikah of an
Olas ha'Of, most of the flesh on top of the neckbone, the neckbone itself,
*and* a Siman is cut before the second Siman is cut. Surely the cutting and
breaking of all of these things *together* should make the bird a Neveilah!
When the Gemara later discusses the cutting of an animal's neck, it is
discussing cutting from the *front* of the animal, and thus it does not
include the cutting of the flesh on top of the neckbone and the neckbone
itself before cutting the Simanim. This is why the animal is not yet a
Neveilah. In contrast, when Melikah is done to a bird, all of these
factors -- the cutting of the flesh, the neckbone, and one Siman -- combine,
and thus the bird certainly should be considered a Neveilah before the
second Siman is cut. Abaye tells Rava that he should have asked his question
regardless of the statement of Ze'iri.
The MAHARSHA explains that this is actually the intention of Rashi as well.
He proves this from the Gemara later (21a) which discusses the Chatas ha'Of.
The Gemara says that after the cutting of the Siman of the Chatas ha'Of, one
must also cut "Rov Basar," a majority of the flesh of the neck. If we
understand that Rashi maintains that the cutting of one Siman gives the bird
the status of a Neveilah, then why does Abaye here not ask from the case of
Chatas ha'Of as well? He should have asked that there is no point in cutting
more than one Siman, since the animal dies when one Siman is cut!
The Maharsha explains that Abaye does not ask this question because, in the
case of a Chatas ha'Of, when one Siman has been cut, most of the flesh has
not yet been cut. Since only one Siman has been cut, the animal is not yet
considered dead. Rashi agrees that in order for a bird to be considered a
Neveilah (in the question of Abaye and Rava), it would have to have the
criteria of Ze'iri -- the neckbone and flesh being cut -- and have one Siman
cut. (See also HE'OROS B'MASECHES CHULIN.) (Y. Montrose)
6) IS A "MEFARCHESES" ALIVE OR DEAD?
QUESTION: Ze'iri states that when the neckbone (Mafrekes) of an animal is
cut together with most of the flesh above it, the animal is considered a
Neveilah (and is Metamei), even if the Simanim are then slaughtered
properly. Since the animal has already been rendered a Neveilah, it does not
help to cut the Simanim. Rava questions Ze'iri's statement. We know that
Melikah is done to a bird at the area in the back of the neck. This means
that the cut of Melikah first penetrates the neckbone and most of the flesh
before the neckbone, and only afterwards does it cut the Simanim. According
to Ze'iri, the cutting of the Simanim is being done on a bird which has
already been killed, and thus Melikah should be invalid!
Abaye asks why Rava is bothered only with Ze'iri's statement. The Gemara
itself (21a) says that when one performs Melikah to an Olas ha'Of, one must
cut both Simanim. If cutting one Siman already kills the bird (and suffices
for Shechitah, or Melikah of a bird), then there should be no need to cut
the second Siman, as the second Siman is being cut on a dead bird!
Why, though, is the animal considered to be killed already after one Siman
is cut? The Gemara later (21a) teaches that only when the head is totally
severed is an animal considered to be dead. This implies that even after one
Siman is cut, the animal is not considered Neveilah (to be Metamei); an
animal that is "Mefarcheses" (twitching spasmodically) is considered to be
alive. Why, then, does the Gemara here assume that once *one* Siman is cut
during Melikah, the bird is considered to be a Neveilah?
ANSWERS:
(a) The RASHBA explains that Abaye argues with the Gemara's assertion that
an animal is considered to be alive after one Siman is cut. According to
Abaye, even when only one Siman of an animal is cut (along with the Mafrekes
and flesh), the animal is considered to be dead.
(b) The KEREISI U'PLEISI (110:3) offers another answer. He points out that
there are two Halachos that result from an animal having the status of a
Neveilah. First, a Neveilah is Metamei. Second, a Neveilah may not be eaten.
These two Halachos are not necessarily related to each other. Even if a
Mefarcheses is considered alive with regard to the Tum'ah of Neveilah (and
is not Metamei), perhaps the prohibition of *eating* a Neveilah applies even
to an animal that is *nearly* dead. Abaye is asking that if the neckbone is
broken with most of the flesh around it, the bird is considered to be a
Neveilah with regard to eating it. Accordingly, his question is clear -- why
must Melikah (the cutting of the second Siman) be done to a bird that is
already dead?
(c) Perhaps we may suggest a simple answer as follows. The Gemara (21a)
cites a Mishnah in Ohalos (1:6) to prove that when the head of animal is
severed, it is considered to be dead. That Mishnah, however, mentions only
"wild animals or domesticated animals." Perhaps *birds* expire more easily;
when one of their Simanim is cut, they are considered to be dead! (See Rashi
to Chulin 28a, DH Veshet, and DH Dilma. It is interesting to note that when
TOSFOS (21a, DH Hutezu Rosheihen) quotes the Mishnah in Ohalos, he adds the
word "Of" (bird), which does not appear in our text of the Mishnah.) (M.
Kornfeld)
7) HOW MUCH OF THE NECK MUST BE CUT?
QUESTION: The Gemara suggests that whatever *must* be cut in order for an
act of Shechitah to be valid must also be severed during the Melikah of a
Olas ha'Of. RASHI (DH Kol ha'Me'akev) explains that this is why the skin of
the bird's neck does not need to be cut during Melikah, but only the Simanim
need to be cut. Rashi adds that "l'Chatchilah, all [of the Simanim] are
required [to be cut]."
How can Rashi say that the two Simanim in their entirety must be cut
l'Chatchilah? There is no requirement that the final minority of the Simanim
must be cut!
In fact, the Gemara continues and says that it is not necessary to cut the
remaining minority of the neck after the majority has been cut, and
therefore it should not be necessary to cut it during Melikah!
ANSWERS:
(a) REBBI AKIVA EIGER suggests that Rashi is not referring to what must be
*cut* during the Shechitah. Rather, Rashi means that the Simanim must all
*be in place* during the Shechitah and not dislodged (see Rashi earlier, DH
ha'Hu). This is what makes the Simanim integral to the Shechitah, and what
requires the Simanim in their entirety to be in place (even though only a
majority needs to be cut).
When the Gemara says that the remaining minority of the Simanim is not
integral to the Shechitah, it means that the minority of the *Kaneh*
(trachea) need not be in place at the time of the Shechitah (see 19b,
"Chatzi Kaneh Pagum"). Even if the minority of the Kaneh is missing, the
Shechitah of the rest of the Kaneh is valid.
(b) The RASHASH offers a simpler solution. The words of Rashi here are out
of place. When Rashi says, "l'Chatchilah, all [of the Simanim] are required
[to be cut]...," he is explaining the *conclusion* of the Gemara, when the
Gemara says, "Whatever must be included (Yeshno) in the Shechitah must be
cut during the Melikah." At *this* point in the Gemara, the Gemara is
suggesting that the minority of the Simanim must be cut during Melikah even
though they do *not* need to be cut during Shechitah. As long as they should
be cut *l'Chatchilah* during the Shechitah, they must also be cut during
Melikas Olas ha'Of. (Z. Wainstein)
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