Previous daf

1)

(a) We asked on Rav Chanin, who learns 'ha'K'li Metzaref Mah she'Besocho', from the Pasuk "Kaf Achas ...", that according to Rebbi Akiva, it is only mi'de'Rabbanan. Resh Lakish Amar Bar Kapara answers 'Lo Nitzrecha Ela li'Sheyarei Minchah'.
What does he mean by that?

(b) This solves the problem with regard to the flour of the Menachos. How will Resh Lakish solve it with regard to the Ketores and the Levonah, which do not have any leftovers (and which Rebbi Akiva includes in his list of de'Rabbanans)?

(c) Rebbi Chiya bar Aba disagrees with Rav Chanin (with regard to 'Tziruf K'li' being d'Oraysa).
What does *he* say?

(a) Is a Mechusar Kipurim permitted to eat ...

1. ... Terumah?
2. ... Kodesh?

(b) How does Rebbi Yossi learn ...

1. ... that a Revi'i le'Tum'ah is Pasul le'Kodesh with a 'Kal va'Chomer' from a Mechusar Kipurim?
2. ... a Shelishi is Pasul li'Terumah with a 'Kal va'Chomer' from T'vul Yom?
3. ... that a Shelishi le'Tum'ah is forbidden to eat Kodesh from the Pasuk in Tzav "ve'ha'Basar Asher Yiga be'Chol Tamei Lo Ye'achel"?

(c) How can one learn a Chumra in a. from b. with a 'Kal va'Chomer' when the Chumra does not exist in b. itself (e.g. to learn that a Shelishi makes a Revi'i ba'Kodesh from the fact that he is forbidden to eat Terumah, when by Terumah itself there is no Revi'i, only a Shelishi)? Why do we not say 'Dayo Lavo min ha'Din Liheyos ke'Nadun'?

(d) How will those who do not learn 'Dayo' even if, as a result, the 'Kal va'Chomer' will be ineffective, answer the Kashya?

(a) We learned in our Mishnah that one hand transmits Tum'ah to the other regarding Kodesh.
What does Rav Shizbi mean when he establishes this specifically 'be'Chiburin'?

(b) What is then the reason for the decree, according to him?

(c) What happens to the Tahor hand if it touches Kodesh when it is not touching the Tamei one, according to Rav Shizbi? Does the hand at least become a Shelishi, to render the Kodesh Pasul?

(a) According to Rebbi in a Beraisa, when the Tamei hand is dry it renders the Tahor hand a Sheini, to make the Kodesh that it touches a Shelishi. What does Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah say?

(b) How does Abaye repudiate Rav Shizbi's explanation (establishing the Mishnah of one hand rendering the other hand Tamei by 'be'Chiburin'), from the fact that the Beraisa stresses that the hand is dry?

5)

(a) According to Resh Lakish, the Tamei hand transmits Tum'ah to the other hand of the same person, but not to someone else's.
What does Rebbi Yochanan say?

(b) What degree of Tum'ah does the one hand transmit to the other?

(c) Does the second hand also transmit Tum'ah to someone else's hand according to Rebbi Yochanan?

(d) Resh Lakish later concedes to Rebbi Yochanan that the hand transmits Tum'ah even to someone else's.
How did Rebbi Yochanan derive this from our Mishnah ' ... she'ha'Yad Metam'ah Chavertah le'Kodesh Aval Lo li'Terumah"?

(a) According to Rebbi Yehoshua in a Beraisa, one hand renders the other Tamei (to make it a Sheini).
What do the Rabbanan say?

(b) How would we explain the Rabbanan without saying that they support Rebbi Yochanan (who says that the one hand renders the other hand a Shelishi, and not a Sheini)?

(c) In another Beraisa, Rebbi says that one hand renders the other a Sheini to be Metamei Kodesh, but not Terumah.
What does Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah say?

(a) We learned in our Mishnah 'Ochlin Ochlin Neguvin be'Yadayim Meso'avos bi'Terumah Aval Lo ba'Kodesh'.
Is there any difference between wet food and dry food as regards Kodesh?

(b) In that case, how does Rebbi Chanina ben Antignos in a Beraisa establish the case in our Mishnah? How did the Kodesh get into his mouth?

(c) What did Chazal now decree?

(a) Is there any difference whether the Chulin had ever been wet before or not?

(b) Why did Chazal necessitate Tevilah on the part of someone who was an O'nen or a Mechusar Kipurim?

(a) What does the Tana mean when he writes 'Ne'emanin al Taharas Yayin ve'Shemen Kol Yemos ha'Shanah'? When did the Am ha'Aretz declare them Hekdesh?

(b) This Mishnah lists cases where Terumah is more stringent than Kodesh. What is the Din in the equivalent case by Terumah?

(c) What should the Am ha'Aretz do with the barrel of Terumah wine after the season of wine-pressing has come to an end?

(d) How will the above Halachah differ if the Am ha'Aretz says that he added a Revi'is of wine for the Nesachim to the barrel?

(a) What does our Mishnah say about barrels of wine and of oil that are 'Meduma'os'?

(b) The Tana adds 'and seventy days before the pressing-season begins'. Why is that?

Next daf