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1)

(a) According to Shmuel, the Isur of Nochri oil was due to the exuding of Tamei vessels into the oil.
What does Rav say?

(b) What problem do we have with this version of Shmuel's reason?

(c) So how do we amend it?

(a) What did Rebbi Simla'i (from Lud) Darshen in Netzivin with regard to the Isur of Nochri oil?

(b) Why did Shmuel feel at ease with that explanation?

(c) He tried to prove Rav wrong, based on a Mishnah in Iduyos.
What does the Mishnah say there about one Beis-Din negating the ruling of another?

(d) What is that a Kashya on Rav?

(a) Rav queried the source of the statement (that Rebbi Yehudah and his Beis-Din had lifted the ban on oil) based on the fact that it was quoted by Rebbi Simla'i.
What was his objection?

(b) What was Rav's reaction when Shmuel threatened to pass on what Rav had said to Rebbi Simla'i himself?

(c) Rav therefore cited the Pasuk in Daniel "Va'yasem Daniel al Libo Asher Lo Yisga'el be'Pas Bag ha'Melech u'be'Yein Mishtav".
What did he extrapolate from the word "Mishtav" (which has plural connotations)? What did he try to prove from there?

(d) How did Shmuel counter Rav's proof?

(a) Whom does Ba'ali quoting Avimi Nusa'a in the name of Rav, as the instigators of the decree on bread, oil, wine and their daughters?

(b) On what grounds do we reject the suggestion that Daniel ...

1. ... tried to decree on oil but it was not accepted until Beis Hillel and Beis Shamai decreed, and it was?
2. ... decreed in the town, and Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel extended the prohibition to the field?

(c) This Kashya would be valid even if one Beis-Din could normally rescind the ruling of another, due to a statement of Rabah bar bar Chanah Amar Rebbi Yochanan.
What did Rabah bar bar Chanah Amar Rebbi Yochanan say about the 'eighteen decrees of Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel'?

(a) How do we finally solve the problem? How could Rebbi Yehudah Nesi'ah rescind the decree on oil, even if it was one of the eighteen decrees?

(b) In fact, he relied on statements by Raban Shimon ben Gamliel and Rebbi Elazar bar Tzadok.
What did they say in this regard?

(c) What is the meaning of the Pasuk in Mal'achi ...

1. ... ''ba'Me'eirah Atem Ne'arim"?
2. ... "ve'Osi Atem Kov'im"?

(d) How does Rav Ada bar Ahavah Darshen the conclusion of the Pasuk "ha'Goy Kulo"?

6)

(a) We spoke earlier about the decree on bread, oil, wine and their daughters (issued by Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel). According to Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak, they decree their daughters to be Nidos from birth.
What does G'niva in the name of Rav say?

(b) Rav's explanation is based on a statement by Rav Acha bar Ada Amar Rebbi Yitzchak.
Why do we amend his words 'Gazru al Pitan Mishum Shamnan' to read 'Gazru al Pitan ve'Shamnan Mishum ... '?

(c) So he says 'Gazru al Pitan ve'Shamnan Mishum Yienan, ve'al Yeinan Mishum Benoseihen'.
How does he conclude his statement?

(d) How do we initially reconcile the decree on their daughters with the Pasuk in Va'eschanan "Lo Sischaten Bam", rendering adultery with a Nochris d'Oraysa?

(a) The problem with this answer lies in the opinion of Rebbi Shimon bar Yochai.
What does Rebbi Shimon learn from the Pasuk there "Ki Yasir es Bincha me'Acharai"?

(b) We query the suggestion that the Torah forbids intermarriage, whilst Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel decreed adultery with a Nochris, on the basis of the Pasuk in Vayeishev "Va'yomer Yehudah Hotzi'uhah Ve'sisaref".
What do we learn from there, that clashes with that suggestion?

(c) If, as we answer, the Beis-Din of Shem decreed on a bas Yisrael having relations with a Nochri, on whom did Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel then decree?

(a) What does Mar say about someone who has relations with a Nochris?

(b) How do we reconcile what we just said (ascribing the decree to Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel) with Mar's statement?

(c) What did Rav Dimi mean when, upon arriving from Eretz Yisrael, he declared that the Beis-Din of the Chashmona'im decreed on a Yisrael who had relations with a Nochris because of 'Nashga'? What does 'Nashga' stand for, beyond Nidah and Shifchah?

(d) What did Rav Dimi mean with that statement?

(a) When Ravin arrived from Eretz Yisrael, he referred to the decree as 'Nashgaz'.
What does the 'Zayin' stand for?

(b) How do we now resolve the She'eilah? What did the Beis-Din of the Chashmona'im decree, and what did that of Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel decree?

(c) To which episode is Rav Yehudah referring, when he states that David's Beis-Din decreed on Yichud?

(d) So how do we then reconcile what we just said (that Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel decreed on Yichud) with Rav Yehudah's statement?

(a) What problem do we have with the Pasuk in Re'ei "Ki Yesischa Achicha ben Imecha ... "?

(b) How does Rebbi Yochanan in the name of Rebbi Shimon ben Yehotzadak solve it? Why *does* the Torah stress ''ben Imecha"?

(c) So how can we attribute Yichud of a Yisre'elis to the Beis-Din of David ha'Melech?

(d) Rebbi Yitzchak concludes that the Chachamim decreed 'Davar Acher Mishum Davar Acher'.
How does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak explain this?

(a) What difficult She'eilah did Rebbi Zeira have that he passed on to Rebbi Asi, who passed it on to Rebbi Yochanan ... Rebbi Yanai ... Rebbi Nachman ben Amram and finally Rebbi?

(b) Rebbi ruled - that they decreed on a Nochri from the day that he is born.
What did Rebbi Chiya say?

(c) What did Rebbi have to say, when Rebbi Nachman ben Amram told him what Rebbi Chiya had said?

(a) What did Ravina extrapolate from the above ruling, regarding a Tinokes Ovedes-Kochavim?

(b) Why did he find it necessary to say that? Why is it not obvious?

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