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1)

(a) Rebbi Meir, in a Mishnah in Menachos, says that when - immediately following the bringing of the Omer - the markets of Yerushalayim were already full of flour and roasted wheat-kernels, it was *without* the consent of the Chachamim.
Why was that?

(b) According to Rebbi Yehudah, it was done *with* their consent.
Why were the Chachamim not concerned, according to him, that the people might eat Chadash prematurely, in keeping with his opinion in our Mishnah?

(c) But how about the grinding and the sifting?

(d) Based on another statement of Rebbi Yehudah in a Mishnah in Menachos (where he specifically permits the cutting of the corn in the regular manner), the Gemara rejects this interpretation.
How then, do we answer the original Kashya? Why is Rebbi Yehudah strict by Chametz and lenient by Chadash?

3)

(a) And how do we reconcile Rebbi Meir in Menachos (who forbids harvesting before the Omer, because one may come to eat it) with the Chachamim in our Mishnah (which presumably includes Rebbi Meir), who obligate searching for Chametz, even after it has become forbidden (and are not concerned that one may come to eat it)?

(b) Rav Ashi points out that Rebbi Yehudah only permits flour and roasted kernels (neither of which is edible).
Why is this answer laughable?

(c) Rebbi Yehudah permits fixing an egg-shell full of oil beside or above a lamp, to allow the oil to drip from it into the lamp.
Why does he not concur with the Tana Kama, who suspects that one may take some of the oil on Shabbos - and who therefore prohibits it (like he himself holds in our Sugya with regard to anything that one uses regularly)?

(d) Then why does he forbid tying the broken rope of a well with a bow, presumably because one may come to make a knot?

(a) Why are the Rabbanan, who are stringent on Shabbos (in the case of the earthenware lamp), lenient with regard to tying *a bow* (when the rope used to draw water from the well, snaps)?

(b) And how do we reconcile there leniency here with their opinion in the same Mishnah in Shabbos, where they forbid tying *a weaver's rope* (using a knot - even though this is only temporary)?

(a) We saw above, that Rebbi Yehudah does not decree by something from which one tends to distance oneself (such as Chadash).
In that case, why does he forbid letting blood by a sick firstborn animal, even in a location where the wound will heal (which is not considered a blemish)?

(b) Why do the Chachamim disagree with this?

(c) Why does Rebbi Yehudah permit Kirtzuf by an animal on Yom-Tov? Why is he not worried there too, that a person will become confused when it comes to a monetary loss, and this will cause him to do Kirud?

(d) The Rabbanan forbid both Kirud and Kirtzuf.
What is the technical distinction between the two?

6)

(a) Rebbi Yehudah forbids searching for Chametz once the time of Isur Chametz arrives, yet he permits Kirtzuf. Why is that?

(b) Why are the Rabbanan strict by Kirtzuf?

(a) According to Rebbi Meir, one may continue to eat Chametz right up to the end of the *fifth* hour of the day, and one destroys it at the beginning of the *sixth*.
With which point does Rebbi Yehudah disagree?

(b) Rebbi Yehudah maintains that two Pasul Chametz Todah-loaves were put out in the Beis-Hamikdash.
Where were they placed, and what purpose did they serve?

(c) What compromise does Raban Gamliel make between the opinions of Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yehudah, and why does he do that?

(a) If one witness testifies that a murder took place on the second of the month, and the second witness gives the date as the third, their testimony is accepted.
Why is that? What do they say when there is a discrepancy in the day of the week?

(b) What will be the Din if the one says that it took place on the third of the month, and the other, on the fifth? Are the witnesses put to death or otherwise punished at the hand of Beis-Din?

(c) Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yehudah agree by a *one*-hour discrepancy, that the testimony of the witnesses is accepted, but argue by *two*.
In which case does Rebbi Yehudah, who is lenient, concede that the testimony is rejected by a two-hour discrepancy?

(a) According to Abaye, Rebbi Meir does not allow the witnesses any margin of error.
Then why does he accept a discrepancy of one hour?

(b) And Rebbi Yehudah allows a margin of error of half an hour.
Then why does he accept a discrepancy of two hours?

(c) What does he say in the second Lashon? And how does he now explain the two opinions?

(d) On what grounds does Rava refute Abaye's explanation?