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1)

(a) Assuming that, in the previous case of 'Kayam Lechi ha'Yom' we cannot infer 'u'Mufar le'Machar' (and the Neder is upheld), Rabah asks what the Din will be if he says 'Mufar Lechi le'Machar' (only).
What must we then assume, if he were to expressly say 'Kayam Lechi ha'Yom u'Mufar le'Machar'?

(b) How do we reconcile this with the previous She'eilah ('Mufar Lach le'Machar), which clearly implies that, had he explicitly said 'Kayam Lechi ha'Yom u'Mufar le'Machar', his words would take effect?

(c) Still on the case of 'Mufar Lechi le'Machar', the Hafarah might not take effect, because his words imply that, today he is upholding the Neder.
Why might it nevertheless take effect?

(a) Assuming the first side of the previous She'eilah (le'Chumra), Rabah asks what the Din will be by 'Kayam Lechi Sha'ah'.
Why is 'Kayam Lechi Sha'ah' any better than 'Kayam Lechi ha'Yom', which we already resolved le'Chumra?

(b) What is then the She'eilah?

(c) Rabah's final She'eilah assumes that, in the current one, seeing as he did not expressly say 'Kayam Lechi Sha'ah *u'Mufar le'Achar Sha'ah*', his Neder is permanently upheld.
What is his final She'eilah?

(a) What does the Beraisa say about a woman who undertook Nezirus, and the husband heard her and said 'va'Ani'?

(b) What do we try to prove from here?

(c) How do we refute the proof?

(a) In which way is the power of the ...

1. ... father stronger than that of the Arus?
2. ... Arus stronger than that of the father

(b) From where do we learn that when the Arus' father dies, the Arus is not permitted to annul her Nedarim on his own.

(c) What Hekesh does Rabah learn from the Pasuk "ve'Im *Hayo Sihyeh* le'Ish, u'Nedarehah Alehah"?

(d) How do we know that this D'rashah is not confined to the Nedarim that the girl made before she became betrothed?

5) In which case will the father not be permitted to annul his daughter's Nedarim on his own after the Arus' death?

6)

(a) We learned in our Mishnah that the power of the Arus is stronger than that of the father, inasmuch as he is able to annul the Nedarim of his betrothed even after she becomes a Bogeres.
Why can this not refer to a case where the Arus betrothed her when she was a Na'arah and she became a Bogeres later?

(b) What is the problem with establishing our Mishnah when the Arus betrothed her when she was already a Bogeres?

(c) What is wrong with the Mishnah later 'Bogeres she'Shahasah Sh'neim-Asar Chodesh ... Yafer'?

(d) So how do we amend the Mishnah to read?

(a) The problem of two Mishnahs telling us that an Arus is able to annul the Nedarim of his Arusah on his own, we resolve initially - by establishing *our* Mishnah Dafka, whereas the Mishnah later mentions the case for an ulterior reason.
Which reason?

(b) Actually, the Mishnah later is as necessary as our's.
Why is that?

(c) Then what do we really mean when we say that it is 'La'av Dafka'?

(d) According to the second answer, it is the Mishnah later that is Dafka.
Why does the Tana then mention the Din in our Mishnah.

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